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Table of Contents

Tips and Tricks for different question types. ......................................................................................... 7

Signposting language ........................................................................................................................... 9

TEST 1 ............................................................................................................................................... 11

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 11

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 11

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 13

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 14

TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................... 16

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 16

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 17

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 18

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 20

TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................... 21

SECTION 1 ..................................................................................................................................... 21

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 21

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 22

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 23

TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................... 25

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 25

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 25

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 27

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 28

TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................... 30

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 30

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 31

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 32

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 34

TEST 6 ............................................................................................................................................... 35

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 35

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 36

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 37

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 38

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TEST 7 ............................................................................................................................................... 39

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 39

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 39

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 40

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 41

TEST 8 ............................................................................................................................................... 43

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 43

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 44

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 45

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 46

TEST 9 ............................................................................................................................................... 48

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 48

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 49

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 50

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 51

TEST 10 ............................................................................................................................................. 53

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 53

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 53

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 55

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 56

TEST 11 ............................................................................................................................................. 58

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 58

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 59

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 60

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 62

TEST 12 ............................................................................................................................................. 65

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 65

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 65

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 66

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 68

TEST 13 ............................................................................................................................................. 71

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 71

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 71

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 73

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Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 74

TEST 14 ............................................................................................................................................. 77

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 77

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 77

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 78

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 80

TEST 15 ............................................................................................................................................. 82

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 82

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 83

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 84

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 85

TEST 16 ............................................................................................................................................. 88

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 88

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 88

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 89

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 90

TEST 17 ............................................................................................................................................. 92

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 92

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 93

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 95

Section 4 ......................................................................................................................................... 96

TEST 18 ............................................................................................................................................. 98

Section 1 ......................................................................................................................................... 98

Section 2 ......................................................................................................................................... 99

Section 3 ......................................................................................................................................... 99

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 100

TEST 19 ........................................................................................................................................... 101

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 101

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 101

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 103

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 104

TEST 20 ........................................................................................................................................... 106

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 106

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Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 106

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 107

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 108

TEST 21 ........................................................................................................................................... 110

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 110

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 110

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 111

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 112

TEST 22 ........................................................................................................................................... 114

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 114

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 115

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 116

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 117

TEST 23 ........................................................................................................................................... 119

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 119

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 119

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 120

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 122

TEST 24 ........................................................................................................................................... 124

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 124

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 125

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 126

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 127

TEST 25 ........................................................................................................................................... 129

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 129

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 130

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 130

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 131

TEST 26 ........................................................................................................................................... 132

Section 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 132

Section 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 132

Section 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 134

Section 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 135

SOLUTION ....................................................................................................................................... 136

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Test 1 ............................................................................................................................................ 136

Test 2 ............................................................................................................................................ 137

Test 3 ............................................................................................................................................ 138

Test 4 ............................................................................................................................................ 139

Test 5 ............................................................................................................................................ 141

Test 6 ............................................................................................................................................ 142

Test 7 ............................................................................................................................................ 143

Test 8 ............................................................................................................................................ 144

Test 9 ............................................................................................................................................ 146

Test 10 .......................................................................................................................................... 147

Test 11 .......................................................................................................................................... 148

Test 12 .......................................................................................................................................... 150

Test 13 .......................................................................................................................................... 151

Test 14 .......................................................................................................................................... 152

Test 15 .......................................................................................................................................... 153

Test 16 .......................................................................................................................................... 154

Test 17 .......................................................................................................................................... 156

Test 18 .......................................................................................................................................... 157

Test 19 .......................................................................................................................................... 158

Test 20 .......................................................................................................................................... 159

Test 21 .......................................................................................................................................... 160

Test 22 .......................................................................................................................................... 161

Test 23 .......................................................................................................................................... 163

Test 24 .......................................................................................................................................... 164

Test 25 .......................................................................................................................................... 165

Test 26 .......................................................................................................................................... 166

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Tips and Tricks for different question types.

Types of questions in IELTS Listening:

●

Multiple choice questions

●

Map Labelling questions

●

Sentence Completion/Note completion/ Table completion/Diagram completion questions ●

Match questions

Let’s look at the tips and tricks required to answer each question type:

Multiple Choice Questions

While listening to the audio recording there will be a section for multiple-choice questions. The

multiple-choice questions are of two types –

●

Multiple choice questions with one answer.

●

Multiple choice question with two or more answers

There are questions that have one or more answers, for those type of questions, you would have to

listen keenly to identify all the answers from the options given.

There are a few things you would have to keep in mind while you’re answering multiple-choice

questions:

●

You will hear all the options that are given to you in the question. You would have to listen

to the audio and interpret the answer from what is asked in the question.

●

Sometimes, the answer options might be of the same kind to confuse you. For instance, it

might all be in the form of dates ( 15 November, 17 November or 18 November). You would

have to read the question and choose the correct answer.

●

The words used in the question might not be the exact words that you hear in the audio

recording. So, you’d have to pay attention to synonyms and how the words are

paraphrased.

●

The information provided in the audio recording might not be in the same order as the

questions asked, so in order to answer the questions correctly, you should have read the

questions beforehand to be aware of what is being asked.

●

There would be a lot of distractors in the audio recording. There would be a lot of the same

kind of information. Sometimes, the speaker might give us any information and then

change it which might be the correct answer. So, do not rush and write down the answer as

soon as you hear it.

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Map Labeling questions

For these types of questions, you would be provided with a map and you would have to label the

places on the map.

There are two types of questions:

1.

A list of words might be given to you and you’d have to listen to the recording and choose

the correct word that fits the blank on the map.

2.

There won’t be a list, you would just listen to the audio and identify the place on the map.

There are a few things you would have to keep in mind while you’re answering Map Labeling

questions:

●

There would be directions to a place or some kind of tour.

●

Read the instructions before you begin, so that you’ll know the word limit of the blanks.

●

Description of the location – listen to words that best describe the location given. For

example, below the park, next to the supermarket, etc.

●

Look at the question numbers – Look at the question numbers and identify the flow of the

map. That would help you listen to what’s coming next.

●

The audio recording would provide you with an understanding of where you are or where

you have to begin at. Pay attention to it at the beginning of the recording. Also, listen to

nearby places and clues to help find the answers.

Sentence Completion/Note completion/ Table completion/Diagram completion questions

In some of the questions, there will be a gap left in between and the examiner asks you to fill that gap.

In order to guess the word correctly, you must have solid grammar skills.

There are a few things you would have to keep in mind while you’re answering sentence (and other

completion) questions:

●

Read the question before you start in order to understand what you should be listening for.

●

Try to guess what would come in the blank. It could be a place, a number, year, name or

even a specific range of information (such as seasons, climatic conditions)

●

The words in the question need not necessarily be the same words you hear in the audio

recordings, learn to tune yourself to synonyms of the words in the question.

●

Though the questions might be phrased differently from the recordings, the answers should

be the exact words you hear in the audio.

●

Remember to check the word count, spelling and grammar before you transfer your

answers to the answer sheet.

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Match questions

These questions are not as common as the other question types but they do occur in the Listening

section. These questions have a list of statements that you’d have to match with the options

provided. Mostly it would be names, places or dates.

There are a few things you would have to keep in mind while you’re answering Match questions:

●

Look at the statements and listen keenly to the kind of information that has been provided

as options. (i.e) if the options are dates, listen keenly to all the dates in the audio.

●

By the side, write down all the information linked to that particular option, it would make it

easier for you to find the answer.

Signposting language

What is a signposting language?

Signposting means using phrases and words to guide the reader through the content of a passage

or a recording. In this case, it’s an audio recording. With the help of these phrases and words, the

listener can anticipate what’s next and find the answer.

Signposting examples:

Purpose

Signposting language

Introduction to the lesson/lecture

●

The purpose of today’s lecture

is…

●

The subject/topic of my talk is …

●

The lecture will outline …

●

The talk will focus on …

●

Today I’ll be talking about /

discussing…

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●

Today we are going to talk about…

●

The topic of today’s lecture is…

Describing the structure of the lecture

●

I’m going to divide this talk into a

few parts.

●

First, we’ll look at….. Then we’ll

go on to … And finally I’ll…

Introducing the topic/ first point / first

section

●

Let’s start by talking about…

●

To begin,…

●

Firstly,…

Starting an idea or linking to another idea

●

Let’s move on to…

●

Now, let’s turn to…

●

And I’d now like to talk about…

●

Building on from the idea that …,

●

Another line of thought on …

demonstrates that …

●

Having established …,

To reach the end of the talk / Summing up

●

In conclusion, …

●

From the above, it is clear that

…

●

Several conclusions emerge from

this analysis …

●

To summarise, …

●

I’d like now to recap…

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TEST 1

Listen to Audio 1 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

BANK ACCOUNT OPENING FORM

Type of account:

deposit account

Name of account decided on:

……………………….1………

Customer’s name:

……………………...2……... Fox

Date of Birth:

……………………….3……….1970

Current address:

10, ……………………4…… House South Quay

Duration of time living there: about ………………...5……. month(s)

Address(before): Flat 3, Canada House

………………….6……………. Street, Edinburgh

Office number:

02072356735

Home number:

………………….7………………………

Occupation: ………………….8……………………….

Identity (security): Name of his ……………….9……………. Monica

The account opening sum: £……………...10…………………………

Section 2

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Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 14

Choose the correct letters A - C

The Elizabeth House

11. Jonathan Owen bought the house in 1965 as it was built in the way of

A. The standard European building style

B. The Asian style of middle ages in the UK

C. The traditional middle ages of the Britain

12. Jonathan Owen has been employed in the university of Canterbury as

A. A head master of ceramic

B. A head carpenter

C. A supervisor of accounting

13. Jonathan Owen succeeded in his business so much, but he suffered from

A. Private household affairs

B. Personal diseases

C. Public relations

14. Where did he gather his building material from?

A. The local area

B. The garden

C. The backyard

Questions 15- 20

Complete the sentences below:

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

- Sun Rainbow was designed by Owen’s brother who had studied …………….15………...in Paris

- There is a …………...16…………….tree with 200 years old near the entrance

- You can find the shop between the path and ……………….17…………………..

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- In the snack bar, you will be able to take rest and get ………………..18……………….

- Through ………..19............ there is a beautiful walk

- Both …...20………… and grapes are the local products that are promoted and marketed every year

with a variety of events and festivals.

Section 3

Questions 21 -30

Questions 21 - 24

Complete the table below:

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Gallery Marketing

The place to get information about museums

and galleries in England

at 21……………………...

Research methods

22……………………., questionnaires or

emails

Total respondents

23…………………….

The compared objects of 24…………. fair

Male and Female

Questions 25 - 30

Complete the summary below:

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

Ceramics

Of the countries chosen ceramic of …………….25…………...is a unique kind that the researchers are

interested in. On ……………..26……………….. Of ceramic, the decoration is compared with artwork

of the present time.

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The natives made the ceramic from …….27………….., like mountain, basement, and the bottom of the

lake. From …….28………… plants, the natives made various colours through the process of

…………….29………………. The tones of ceramic were used by ….30……………….

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 36

Choose the correct letters A - C

Waste issues in the UK

31. The waste collection in the UK compared to other European nations

A. is lower than 15%

B. will be lower in the next coming years

C. is lower

32. What did the local government do to reduce waste?

A. support green campaign and flea markets

B. enact a severe regulation

C. investing in flea markets

33. What kinds of flea markets is in the UK?

A. indoors and outdoors

B. warehouse and school gymnasium

C. an open field with many small tents

34. What did the UK flea market vendors sell?

A. second hand tables and food

B. unwanted household products

C. fast food and beverages

35. What hindrance in opening more flea markets is in the UK?

A. Customers cannot access the internet

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B. There is not enough space and money

C. the information and marketing are deficient

36. How much waste (electronic and furniture goods) is recycled annually in the UK flea markets?

A. 20%

B. 15%

C. 50%

Questions 37 - 38

Choose two letters A- E

37 & 38. Which two solutions in handling the recycling problems of office papers in the UK?

A. manufacture high-quality paper to reuse

B. classify paper before selling.

C. sell paper to farmers as fertilizer.

D. put paper through a sorting process

E. Use high tech machine to produce paper

Questions 39 - 40

Choose two letters A- E

39 & 40. Which TWO reasons are encouraging UK people to reuse waste?

A. for later use

B. saving resources

C. using for other purposes

D. environmental protection

E. can be used by others.

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TEST 2

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Hostel accommodation

Top End Backpackers Price

per person:

$19

Comments and reviews:

+ parking available, +

staff are

………….1……………….

+ nice pool

+ air-conditioning is too ………….2…………….

Gum tree lodge

Price per person:

$.....................3……………………

Comments and reviews:

+ good quiet location

+ pools and gardens

+ …………….4……………. In the dormitories

Kangaroo lodge

Price per person:

$22

Comments and reviews:

+ downtown location

+ reception at the lodge is always open

+ no lockers in the rooms

+ the ………….5……………. are very clean

+ seems to be a ...6……… every night

Address:

on …………...7…………… lane

Listen to Audio 2 and answer the questions below.

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Hostel information:

+ sheets are provided

+can hire a/an ………….8……………

+ ……….9…………. is included

+ a shared ……...10…………. Is available

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 16

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

Anglia Sculpture Park

11. The land where the sculpture is located was previously completely covered by forest is

A. completely covered by forest

B. the site of a private house

C. occupied by a factory

12. What is unusual about the Anglia Sculpture Park?

A. artists have made sculptures especially for it

B. some of its sculptures were donated by the artists

C. It only shows contemporary sculptures

13. What is the theme of Joe Tremain’s sculptures?

A. The contract between nature and urban life

B. The effect of man on the environment

C. the violence of nature

14. The path by the lower lake

A. is rather wet in some places

B. has recently been repaired

C. is difficult to walk on

15. What does the speaker say about the visitor centre?

A. It is being enlarged at present

B. It has received an international award

C. It was designed by a Canadian architect

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16. Today, visitors can buy snacks and sandwiches

A. at the kiosk

B. in the terrace room

C. at the Lower Lake café

Questions 17 - 20

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

Making Report

21. Why did Leo choose instant coffee as the topic for his marketing report?

A. he found plenty of material on the topic

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B. he has some practical experience in the area

C. he had an idea of a brand he wanted to target

22. Leo discovered that in Australia, recent technological developments

A. are producing less healthy types of instant coffee

B. are reducing the demand for instant coffee

C. are improving the quality of instant coffee

23. What do the speakers agree about the Leo’s table of coffee products?

A. it needs more explanation in the text

B. it is factually inaccurate in some places

C. it would be best to put this in the appendix

24. What do they decide about Shaffer's coffee as a market follower?

A. Leo needs to define his terms

B. Leo needs to provide more evidence

C. Leo needs to put it in a different section

25. What does Anna say about originality in someone’s first marketing report?

A. Clear analysis of data can be considered original

B. graphs and diagrams should be original, not copied

C. reports should contain some original data collected by the student

26. What difference between school assignments and this report has surprised Leo?

A. not knowing the criteria for getting a good mark

B. being required to produce work without evidence

C. having to do a great deal of research

Questions 27 - 30

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.

Notes on specific section of marketing report

Executive summary: give a brief overview including the 27……

Problems: Link each problem to a/an ………….28…………… which explains

it.

Implementation: practical solutions to problems

Includes details such as participants, …….29…………… and

sequence section is often poorly done because of lack of

…………...30…………….

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Conclusion: Don’t use raw material here

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Complete the notes below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

History of fireworks in Europe

13th - 16th centuries

- fireworks were introduced from china

- Their use was mainly to do with:

+ war

+................31……………. (in plays as festivals)

17th century:

Various features of …………...32…………… were shown in fireworks

Scientists were interested in using from fireworks displays

To make human …….33…………. possible

To show the formation of ….34………………………

London:

Scientists were distrustful at first

Later they investigated ...35………...uses of fireworks (Eg: for sailors) St.

Petersburg:

Fireworks were seen as method of ...36………. for people Paris:

Displays emphasised the power of ...37…………….

Scientists aimed to provide ……...38……………. 18th

century:

Italian fireworks specialists became influential Servandoni’s firework display followed

the same pattern as a/an ……...39……………. The appeal of fireworks extended to

the middle classes

Some displays demonstrated new scientific discoveries such as ………...40………………...

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TEST 3

Listen to Audio 3 and answer the questions below.

SECTION 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Competition of Writing a Short Story

Entry Details

- cost of entry:

5 pounds

- Length of story:

approximately ……...1………………….

- Requirement:

Must include a/an ……….2……………. ending

- Minimum age:

……….3………………….

- Last entry date:

……….4…………………

- Web address:

www……….5…………...com

- Rule:

do not ……….6………. the story to the organisms

Judging and prize details

- Assessments:

The story is judged by well known …………...7…………………

- Prizes:

+ top five stories will be available…………….8………………

+the top story will be chosen by the ………...9…………………

+ the first prize is a place at a writer’s workshop in ...10………

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 17

Complete the sentences below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

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Information of Sea Life Centre

- The Sea Life centre was previously called as the World of ………………...11………………… - The

newest attraction at the centre is the splash …………...12………………….

- The main feeding time at the centre is at ………………….13…………………

- Visitors can feed the …………….14…………..with a VIP ticket

- A small party will be arranged by the centre for visitor’s ……………….15………………….

- The petition for animal conservation will be sent to ……………...16……………….

- A/An …………..17……………… can be used to test what visitor has learnt

Questions 18 - 20

18,19 & 20. What does the guide say about each attraction?

Choose THREE answers from the list below and write the correct letter A - E, next to questions 18 -

20.

List of attractions:

Comments:

A. Aquarium

must not miss

……………….18……………

B. Crocodile cave

temporarily closed

……………….19…………….

C. Penguin park

large queues

……………….20…………….

D. Seal centre

E. Turtle town

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 22

Choose two letters A - E,

21 & 22. Which TWO subjects did Martina like best before going to university?

A. Art

B. English

C. French D. History

E. Science

Questions 23 - 26

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Complete the summary below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

George’s Experience of University

George is studying Mechanical Engineering which involves several disciplines. He is finding

……….23…………… the most difficult. At the moment, his course is only ……...24………….

He will soon have an assignment which involves a study of jet …………….25……………… He

thinks there are too many ….26………… and would like less of them.

Questions 27 - 30

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

27. Martina thinks that the students at her university are

A. sociable

B. intelligent

C. energetic

28. George hopes that his tutor will help him

A. lose his shyness

B. settle into university

C. get to know his subject better

29. What does Martina know about her first assignment?

A. the topic

B. the length

C. the deadline

30. George would like to live

A. In a hall of residence

B. in a flat of his own

C. with a host family

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

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Questions 31 - 35

Complete the notes below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap:

Preparation Process of Making a Presentation

Initial thoughts:

Most important consideration: your audience

Three points to bear in mind

+ what they need to know

+ how ………...31…………… they will be

+ how big the audience will be Structure:

Start with information that draws the audience’s …………….32………………. end

with next …………….33………………….

Design:

The presentation needs to be ……...34…………….

Vary content by using a mix of words and ……...35…………………

Questions 36 - 40

Presenting:

Look at the audience, be enthusiastic and energetic

Voice - vary speed and …….36…………….

Occasionally add ………...37…………….

Do not use weak ……….38…………… (e.g: appears, seems)

Questions and interruptions:

When asked a question, first of all you should ……………….39……………… it

Minimise interruptions by ………………….40………………. them.

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TEST 4

Listen to audio 4 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap Goodbye party for John

Venue:

College Dining room

Invitations (Tony) Who

to invite:

- John and his ……….1……………….

-Director

- the office ………...2………………….

- all the teachers

- all the ………………...3……………….

Date for sending invitations:

Present (Lisa)

……….4………

Collect money:

- coffee breaks

-$ ………….5…………………….

Check prices for:

- CD players

- set of …….6…….

- coffee ………7……….

Ask guests to bring:

-snacks

-music ……...8…….

- ………9……...

Ask students to prepare a

-………10…….

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 15

Choose the correct letters A - C

11. To find out how much holidays cost, you should press button

A. one

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B. two

C. three

12. Travelite currently offer walking holidays

A. only in Western Europe

B. all over Europe

C. Outside Europe

13. The walks offered by Travelite

A. cater for a range of walking abilities

B. are planned by guides from the local area

C. are for people with good fitness levels

14. On travelite holidays people holidaying alone play

A. the same as other clients

B. only a little more than other clients C. extra only if they stay in a

large room.

15. Entertainment is provided

A. When guests request it

B. most nights

C. every night

Questions 16 - 20

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Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Questions 27 - 30

What problems do the speakers identify for each experiment?

Match your answers A - H from the box next to questions 27 - 30

A. too messy

Experiment 1: ………….27……...

B. too boring

C. too difficult

Experiment 2: …………28………

D. too much equipment

E. too long

Experiment 3: ……...29……

F. too easy

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G. too noisy

Experiment 4: F

H. too dangerous

Experiment 5: …….30…….

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 34

Complete the note below

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Shark in Australia

Length:

largest caught

16 metres

Weight:

Heaviest

31………... kg

Skeleton:

Cartilage

Skin texture:

Rough barbs

Swimming aids:

fins and ………...32………….

Food:

gathered from the ocean

…………...33……………….

Sharks locate food by using

their sense of

………...34…………….

Questions 35 - 38

Choose the correct letters A - C

35. Sharks meshing uses nets laid

A. along the coastline

B. At an angle to the beach

C. from the beach to the sea

36. Other places that have taken up shark meshing include

A. South Africa

B. New Zealand

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C. Tahiti

37. The average number of sharks caught in nets each year is

A. 15

B. 150

C. 1500

38. Most sharks are caught in

A. spring

B. summer

C. winter

Questions 39 - 40

Choose TWO letters A - G

39 & 40. Which TWO factors reduce the benefits of shark nets?

A. net wrongly positioned

B. strong waves and currents

C. too many fish

D. sharks eat holes in nets

E. moving sands

F. nets too short

G. holes in nets scare sharks

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TEST 5

Listen to audio 5 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Bankside Recruiting Agency

Address:

497, Eastside, Docklands

Name of agent:

Becky……………….1…………………….

Phone number:

07866510333

Time to contact:

Typical jobs:

Best time to call her in the …………….2…………….

Clerical and admin roles, mainly in the finance industry

Must have good …...3……… skills

Jobs are usually for at least one …….4…………. Pay

is usually £……...5…………. per hour

Registration process:

Wear a ……….6…………… to the interview

Must bring your ……...7………. to the interview

They will ask questions about each applicant’s ………………...8………………….

Further information:

The ………….9……………. you receive at interview will benefit you. Will

get access to vacancies which are not advertised.

Less ……….10…………...is involved in applying for jobs.

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Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 14

Choose the correct letters A - C

Matthews Island Holidays

11. According to the speaker, the company

A. has been in business for longer than most of its competitors

B. arranges holidays to more destinations than its competitors

C. has more customers than its competitors

12. Where can customers meet the tour manager before travelling to the Isle of Man?

A. Liverpool

B. Heysham

C. Luton

13. How many lunches are included in the price of holidays?

A. three

B. four

C. five

14. Customers have to pay extra for

A. guaranteeing themselves a larger room

B. booking at short notice

C. transferring to another date

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Questions 15 - 20

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Time table for Isle of Man Holiday

Activity

Notes

Day 1

Arrive

-

Introduction by

manager

-

Hotel dining room has

view of the 15………….

Day 2

Tynwald Exhibition and Peel

Tynwald may have been

founded in 16……….. not 979.

Day 3

Trip to Snaifell

Travel along promenade in a

tram; train to Laxey; train to

17…………….. of Snaifell

Day 4

Free day

Company provides a

18……………….. for local transport

and heritage sites.

Day 5

Take the 19…………….railway

train from Douglas to Port Erin

Free time, then coach to

Castletwon- former 20……………..

has old castle.

Day 6

Leave

Leave the island by Ferry or

plane.

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

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What did findings of previous research claim about the personality traits a child is likely to have

because of their position in the family?

Choose SIX answers from the list below and match the correct letter, A - H to question 21 - 26

Personality traits

Position in the family

A. outgoing

the eldest child …...21……….

B. selfish

a middle child …….22…………

C. independent

the youngest child …...23…….

D. attention-seeking

a twin ……….24…………….

E introverted

an only child ……….25……….

F. co-operative

a child with much older siblings…….26…….

G. caring

H. competitive

Questions 27 - 28

Choose the correct letters A - C.

27. What do the speakers say about the evidence relating to birth order and academic success?

A. There is conflicting evidence about whether oldest children perform best in intelligence tests.

B. There is little doubt that birth order has less influence on academic achievement than

socioeconomic status

C. Some studies have neglected to include important factors such as family size.

28. What does Ruth think is surprising about the difference in oldest children’s academic performance?

A. It is mainly thanks to their role as teachers for their younger siblings.

B. The advantages they have only lead to a slightly higher level of achievement.

C. The extra parental attention they receive at a young age makes little difference.

Questions 29 - 30

Choose TWO letters A - E

29&30. Which TWO experiences of sibling rivalry do the speakers agree has been valuable for

them?

A .learning to share

B .learning to stand up for oneself

C .learning to be a good loser

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D .learning to be tolerant

E .learning to say sorry

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Complete the notes below

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

The Eucalyptus Tree in Australia

Importance:

It provides ……….31…………. And food for a wide range of species

Its leaves provide …...32………. Which is used to make a disinfectant

Reasons for present decline in number:

Diseases

(i) ‘Mundulla Yellow’

-

Cause - lime used for making …………….33………. Was absorbed.

-

Trees were unable to take in necessary iron through their roots.

(ii) ‘Bell miner associated Dieback’

-

Cause …….34………… feed on Eucalyptus leaves

-

They secrete a substance containing sugar

-

Bell miner birds are attracted by this and keep away other species

Bushfires

William Jackson’s theory:

- High frequency bushfires have an impact on vegetation resulting in the growth of …….35……. -

Mid frequency bushfires result in the growth of eucalyptus forests because they make more

……...36…………. Available to the trees.

- Maintain the quality of the …………...37………………

- Low frequency bushfires result in the growth of ………….38………. rainforest’s which is: a

………...39………… ecosystem, an ideal environment for the ………….40…………… of the bell

miner.

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TEST 6

Listen to audio 6 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM

First names:

Louise Cynthia

Address:

Apartment 1, 72 …………………. street

Highbridge

Postcode:

………….2………………

Telephone:

9835 6712 (home)

……3………(work)

Driver’s license number:

…………4….

Date of birth:

Day: 25th Month: ..........5…………… Year: 1977

Questions 6 - 8

Choose three letters A - F

6,7 & 8. What type of films does Louise like?

A. Action

B. Comedies

C. Musicals

D. Romance

E. Westerns

F. Wildlife

Questions 9 - 10

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

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How much does it cost to join the library? ………….9………………

When will Louise’s card be ready? ……………..10……………...

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 13

Complete the note below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

Expedition across Attora mountains

Leader: Charles Owen

Prepared a 11………………………. for the trip

Total length of the trip 12……………….

Climbed highest peak in 13……………...

Questions 14 - 15

Choose the correct letters A - C

14. What took the group by surprise?

A. the amount of rain

B. the number of possible routes

C. the length of the journey

15. How did Charles feel about having to change routes?

A. He reluctantly accepted to it

B. He was irritated by the diversion

C. It made no difference to his enjoyment.

Questions 16 - 18

Choose THREE letters A - F

16,17 & 18. What does Charles say about his friends?

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A .He met them at one stage on the trip

B .They kept all their meeting arrangements

C .One of them helped arrange the transport

D .One of them owned the hostel they stayed in

E .Some of them travelled with him

F .Only one group lasted the 96 days

Questions 19 - 20

19 & 20 Choose TWO letters A - E What

does Charles say about the donkeys?

A.

He rode them when he was tired

B.

He named them after places C. One of them died

D. They behaved unpredictably

E.

They were very small

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 25

Questions 26 - 30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

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What is Jane’s study strategy in lectures?

………….26………………….

What is Tim’s study strategy for reading?

…………….27……………….

What is the subject of Tim’s first lecture?

…………...28………………….

What is the title of Tim’s first essay?

…………...29………………….

What is the subject of Jane’s first essay?

……………….30……………………

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 35

Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

Course

Type of course: duration and

level

Entry requirements

Physical Fitness Instructor

Example Six-month certificate

None

Sports Administrator

……(31)…..

(32)…….. in sports

administration

Sports Psychologist

(33)………

Degree in psychology

Physical Education Teacher

Four-year degree in education

(34)……..

Recreation Officer

(35)……..

None

Questions 36 - 40

What is the main role of each job? Choose the correct answer and move it into the gap.

Job

Main role

Physical fitness instructor …….36………

A the coaching of teams

Sports administrator …….37……….

B the support of elite athletes

Sports psychologist ……...38……….

C guidance of ordinary individuals

Physical education trainer ……...39……….

D community health

Recreation officer

……...40……….

E the treatment of injuries

F arranging matches and venues

G the rounded development of children

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TEST 7

Listen to audio 7 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Properties in Accommodation

Name:

Jane Ryder

Phone number:

(0044) ……………...1……………….

Email address:

[email protected]………………...co.uk

Occupation:

a local ……………….3……………………

Type of accommodation:

- a 2-bedroom apartment wanted (must have its own ……4…….)

-no …………….5…………. Required (family bringing theirs)

- a/an …….6…………… in the kitchen is preferable

Preferred location:

near a/an ………….7………………….

Maximum rent:

…………….8………………. per month

Other requests:

the accommodation has to be ……….9……………. In the daytime

How did you hear?

Through a/an ………….10………………….

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 15

Complete the sentences below

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

Safety Guidelines

- The police officer suggests neighbours give each other their details of

…………….11……………….

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- Neighbours should discuss what to do if there’s any kind of …………….12…………………… - It’s a

good idea to leave on the ………...13………………….

- Think carefully about where you put any …………….14……………….

- It’s a good idea to buy good quality …………….15………………….

Questions 16 - 20

Choose FIVE answers from the list below and write the correct letter, A - G, next to questions 16 -

20.

Proposed crime prevention measures

List of jobs:

A. install more lighting

skate park ……………...16………………….

B. have more police officers on patrol

local primary schools ………...17…………...

C. remove surrounding vegetation

Abbotsford street ………….18…………….

D. Contact local police

Shops on Victoria street ……….19…………

E. fix damage quickly

F. change road design

G. use security cameras

supermarket car park ………….20………….

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 25

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

Food Waste

21. What point does Robert make about the 2013 study in Britain?

A. it is focused more on packaging than wasted food

B. it proved that households produced more waste than restaurants.

C. it included liquid waste as well as solid waste

22. The speakers agree that food waste reports should emphasize the connection between carbon

dioxide emissions and

A. food production

B. transport of food to landfill sites

C. distribution of food products

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23. Television programs now tend to focus on

A. the nutritional value of food products

B. the origin of food products

C. the chemicals found in food products

24. For Anna, the most significant point about food waste is

A. the moral aspect

B. the environmental impact

C. the economic effect

25. Anna and Robert decide to begin their presentation by

A. handing out a questionnaire

B. providing statistical evidence

C. showing images of wasted food.

Questions 26 - 30

What advantages do the speakers identify for each of the following projects?

Choose FIVE answers from the list below and write the correct letter, A - G next to questions 26 - 30

List of advantages:

List of projects:

A it should save time

edible patch …………...26……………….

B it will create new jobs

ripeness sensor ………...27……………...

C it will benefit local communities

waste tracking technology …………...28…………….

D it will make money

smartphone application ……………...29……………

E it will encourage personal responsibility food waste composting…………….30…… F it will be

easy to advertise

G it will involve very little cost

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

Kite-making by the Maori people of New Zealand

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Making and appearance of the kites:

- the priests who made the kites had rules for size and scale

- …………….31…………... was not allowed during a kite’s preparation

Kites:

- often represented a bird, a god, or a/an ……………...32………………...

- had frames that were decorated with grasses and ………...33…………

- had a line of noisy …...34…………. attached to them

- could be triangular, rectangular or ………….35…………. shaped

- Had patterns from clay mixed with …………...36………… oil

- sometimes had human head masks with ……….37………… and a tattoo Purpose and function of

kites:

- a way of sending ………….38…………. to gods

- a way of telling other villages that a/an …………….39…………. was necessary

- a mean of …………….40………………. If enemies were coming

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TEST 8

Listen to audio 8 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 7

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

English courses for international students

Course available:

- writing in first term

-...............1……………. in second term

- ………...2……………. and grammar

throughout the year

- ………...3……………. cases during long

vacation

Class sizes:

maximum capacity is

…………...4………………..

Costs:

often paid by the …………….5………………….

Exams:

available in …………….6………………….

Enrollment:

must enroll by …………...7………………….

Questions 8 - 10

Write THREE letters, A - G

8,9 &10. Which THREE items does the student need to bring to the first class?

A

passport

B

computer disk

C note from tutor

D notebook

E

student identity card

F

dictionary

G registration form

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Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 15

Which types of transport is true with the following features?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A - C, next to questions 11 - 15

Transportation

A. tube

B. train

C. bus

Features of transport

cheapest ………….11……….

most convenient…...12………

most comfortable…...13…….

fastest ………...14………….

most frequent service ……….15……….

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Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 23

What is the advantage of each course?

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A - E next to questions 21 - 23

Advantages of the course

Courses

A. will be tested in the final exams Science and ethics …….21…… B. will be

useful for a future job

Pharmacology prelim…...22……

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C. will help with research skills

Reporting test results…...23…… D.

will improve writing skills

E. will support material already covered

Questions 24 - 30

Complete the sentences below

Write ONLY ONE WORD in each gap

- The Maths course will run in the …………...24…………. term

- The tutor for Pharmacology is visiting from ………...25…………

- …………….26………… for the project must be submitted by the end of January - Resources for

experiments are available in the newly built ………...27………….

- Extra ...28………...will be held in December

- Students are allowed to do presentations in …………….29……………….

- Course assessment will be based on a/an …………...30……………….

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 37

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Questions 38 - 40

Choose THREE letters, A - F

38, 39 & 40. Which THREE types of accommodation does the speaker say will increase in the city

centres?

A. flats for rent

B. social housing

C. homes for retired people

D. private housing

E. buildings for a company and residing

F. smart apartments

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TEST 9

Listen to audio 9 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Wildlife conservation society

Application for membership

Heard of WCS from:

1……………………………...

Address:

21, Beel street, Leeds

Postcode:

2……………………...

Phone number:

01173 58642

Email address:

3. mj@............................

Length of membership: Type of membership:

Fee

4…………………… years

5………………………

6. £…………………….

Payment details:

Name of bank:

direct debit

7………………………….

Account name:

Michael Jones

Account number:

01059612

Date of first payment:

Reference number:

8………………………….

9………………………….

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Other requests:

- extra information pack

-10……………………….

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 18

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Spring Festival

Questions 19 - 20

Choose the correct letter A, B or C

19. In the Spring Festival competition, you can win

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A. A family pass to “Balloon down under”

B. A cheque for $200.

C. A flight in a hot air balloon.

20. You can get an entry form for the competition from

A. the radio station

B. the newspaper

C. the festival’s website

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Archeology course:

•

Can be combined with any other subject except with 21…………………………

•

Has three 22………………. modules in first semester

Module 1

Title:

23…………………………………

Lecturer:

Dr. Morris

Learning method:

Lectures and practical sessions

Content:

Based on processes Recording

24………………….

Interpretation

Display

Assessment:

Module 2

By 25………………………………

Title:

26………………………………….

Lecturer:

Prof.Elliot

Content:

27…………. And development of built environments

Assessment:

By 28……………… examination

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Module 3

Title:

Method and Science

Lecturer:

Dr. Thompson

Content:

Standard techniques in fieldworks and analysis

Learning method:

50% lab work, 50% 29………………………….

Site survey at the end of module: (the 30……………… is to be announced later)

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 33

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

31. What impact does Marc Prensky believe that digital technology has had on young people?

A. It has altered their thinking patterns

B. It has harmed their physical development

C. It has limited their brain capacity

32. “Digital immigrants” tend to access computers

A. using their native language

B. less efficiency than young people

C. for less important information

33. What example is given of having a “digital accent”?

A. Having less effective typing skills

B. Doing thing the old-fashioned way

C. Being unable to understand instructions

Questions 34 - 40

Which theorist makes each of the following points?

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 34 - 40

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Theorists

A.

Allen

B.

James

C.

Vander

Points made:

34. Current teaching methods don’t work …………………….

35. Many students don’t understand computers…………….

36. Computer technology doesn’t interest all students……….

37. Students can still learn the traditional way ……………….

38. Students still need to learn research skills ……………….

39. We should use computer games to teach ……………………

40. Computers can’t replace educators ………………….

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TEST 10

Listen to audio 10 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap

Advertisement for Old Laptop

Condition:

Almost new

Weight:

………...1………………… Make: Allegro

Memory:

…………….2…………….GB

Screen:

……………...3………………

Touchpad:

With cordless mouse Number

of ports:

02

Battery:

Lasts around …………….4………….

Lab test programs:

Not …………….5……………. Extras:

- webcam

-printer with scanner and …...6………….

- smart case

Price:

£………….7…………….

Contact details:

Name:

David ………….8…………….

E-mail address:

[email protected]

Mobile number:

………….9………………….

Advert placed on:

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 12

Choose TWO letters A - E

…………...10………………….

11 & 12. What TWO changes to the organization of this year’s festival are mentioned?

A. free parking

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B. free refreshments

C. new uniforms

D. free concert

E. large tents

Questions 13 - 15

Complete the table below:

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Teams

Purpose

Meeting point

Time

Beach team

Pick up litter, etc

13 ………

8 am

Town team

Arrange 14…….

Village hall

15 …..

Questions 16 - 20

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

16. What does the speakers say about the judges in the competitors?

A. Most people judging will have some experience

B. None of the judges will have experience

C. Every judge will be experienced

17. The winner in each of the competitions will

A. be given vouchers

B. be awarded a cash prize

C. receive book-tokens

18. The profits from the marathon will be given to the Children’s hospital to help

A. buy new specialist equipment

B. decorate the hospital wards

C. provide the books for the children

19. Wardens will be needed at the car park

A. they helped organize the parking well last year

B. The parking last year was dis-organized

C. They will be needed to collect parking fees

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20. Bags will be provided by the council

A. for all the rubbish

B. Only for the food rubbish

C. only for the material that can be recycled

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 22

Complete the sentences below:

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

Study methods

People usually spend approximately 21…………………… on concentrating their lectures

The optimal method to approach lectures is to do the necessary 22…………… in advance.

Questions 23 - 26

What were students’ opinions on the study techniques?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter A - C next to questions 23 - 26

Opinions

Technique

A

good method

writing essay plans: …….23…….

B

no strong opinion

discussing ideas: ............24……….

C

was not good method

reading whole chapters …….25….

Skim reading ………...26………….

Questions 27 - 30

27. According to the research that Susan conducted, most students believe

A. time management is generally quite important

B. time management isn’t very important

C. time management is very important to young students

28. What did students complain about their studies?

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A. They had to get up early in the morning.

B. They had to earn money to support their studies

C. They had to work part time on weekends

29. Susan discovered that most of the students she surveyed

A. would prefer it if they didn’t have exams

B. actually quite liked exams

C. actually dreaded the exams

30. What were Susan’s findings on exam prediction techniques?

A. All the younger students like to prepare the exams in a short time,

B. Few older students spent much time on revising

C. A few younger students study the whole night.

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Complete the notes below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

Architecture roles in people’s lives Implementation

plan:

- The purpose of data collection was to test people’s 31………………., i.e. unhappy, happy

- The initial plan to use a questionnaire was abandoned, because it was extremely 32…………

- The scale method was rather 33………………...to collect people’s response

- The final images were produced by aiding of 34……………………. resources

- The chosen images were preserved by stiff 35………………………

- People who formed part of the sample were 36………………. from various places.

- Appointing a leader for the group was to keep the team not going various 37………………….

Reaction of respondents:

- The reaction of the 11- 18- year-old group was utmost ……………….38………………….

- The 20-40-year-old group mostly scored about ……………….39…………………

- Approximately 40…………………...respondents who had no response

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TEST 11

Listen to audio 11 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1- 10

Question 1-5

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

JOB HUNTING

Company’s Name

Job details

Reference number

Contact

Example

POWER

(manufacturing

company)

● Work in a

1………..

section

SW35FT

Jane 2 …………...

COTTON

(grocery company)

●

Good pay

●

Work in

3………

office in a

4………….

●

chance of

promotion

5 ………...

Go to office

Question 6 -10

Complete the notes below Write ONE WORD

ONLY for each answer.

Notes on Jobs

• Local jobs can be found in the 6.............

• Buy the 7 .......... to get one free magazine (Job Plus)

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• Feel stress and spend a lot of time looking for jobs

• Advisable to go to an 8. ....... instead of the recruitment seminar • Bring a student card (10%

discount)

• Referee:

- former boss (once had a job)

- one of the 9. ............. (if not)

• Intend to take the art course

• Fill out a 10 ........... form at the end of the course.

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Tower Hill Pageant Londinium

Romans built 11 ..................... linked by roads.

Londinium was a port.

Lundenwic

It was the port of London in 12. ......................Aldwych is a street named after ‘old port’ in Old

English.

People sold goods and 13. ……….…….

English King Alfred moved the population to the Roman walls so as to defend against

14 ……….…….

London prior to Norman Conquest

King Edward built a church in ‘Westminster’.

He also built a palace for 15. ……….……. William Conqueror built 16 ................... , including the

Tower of London.

He also had the Domesday Book - it was a 17 ..................... about the land and livestock in British

counties.

Mediaeval London

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Imports would go to the quays. Exports were taken to Customs House and 18. ……….…… were

collected. The fire was a constant threat in mediaeval London.

Tudor London

●

Fine houses were located to the west of London.

●

The Globe Theatre was direct across from the first stone bridge.

●

Commerce was within 19. ……….……

The first stone bridge had 19 arches and a 20..................... which was raised when an attack would

occur.

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Question 21 - 26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Willows Studies

21 What field is Willows currently focused on?

A.. Specialising in one product

B. making a variety of products

C. adding a lot of retail outlets

22. How did the students feel about the software?

A. The professor contacted the company.

B. An article was read in a newspaper

C. A student works part-time during the vacations.

23. How did the student feel about the software?

A. It’s not easy to predict.

B. It’s slow for drawing designs

C. It had a good interface.

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24 How did the students find out about the effects of the software on the company?

A. They went to the IT department.

B. They talked with the manager. C. They inspected the accounts.

25 The reason why the students have a face-to-face interview alone is that

A. they could prepare for exams.

B. there will be less disturbance.

C. it's less realistic.

26 How did the two students perform in the exam?

A. very disappointing

B. significantly good

C. above the average

Question 27 – 28

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

27 & 28. In which TWO ways will the new system affect the company?

A. gain more profit

B. employ more new staff

C. increase sales

D. reduce production time

E. cut labour costs

Questions 29 and 30

Choose TWO letters.

29 & 30. Which TWO effects will the new system have on new clients?

A. getting more involved in the design

B. obtaining more contacts

C. linking at home to do online work

D. wasting less time

E. decreasing labour costs

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Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

LED is a 31 ............................ for light-emitting diode. H. J. Round

discovered a 32. ........................... called electroluminescence.

Questions 33-34

Circle TWO letters: A-

G.

33 & 34. Which TWO of the following items included the first commercial LEDs?

A. TVs

B. electronic test devices

C. telephones

D. interior lighting

E. radios

F. household appliances

G. lab equipment

Questions 35-40

Complete the diagrams below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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TEST 12

Listen to audio 12 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes on A Part-time Society

Example

Name of society: Leighton

Location: 1 ......... house

Want: 2 ......... actors and singers (no experience required)

Transportation: shuttle services (need someone who is able to 3 .............)

Meeting time: 6:00-8:00pm every 4..............

Close time: during 5.............

Membership fee (including 6…………..)

- £40 for employed members (under 30 years of age)

- £ 60 for employed members (30-60 years of age)

- £ 7…………… for retired or unemployed members (over 60 years of age)

Minimum joining age

- 8............

Most members are

- friendly

- fond of culture and music

- 9 .........authors looking for new experiences to write about in their books Charity

The children’s 10 ........ will get the money raised by the annual dinner.

Section 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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Name of Room

Characteristics

Furniture and Features

Entrance Hall Vestibule or

Octagon Hall

11. A .................... colour

Chinese style chairs brass

enclose

Entrance Hall

12. With… ............... panels

of serpents and dragons

furniture looks like pollarded

oak

Long Gallery

13...................... and Oriental

pots

Banqueting Room

A dining table laid for the

14……….……, with thirty-six

chairs

Great Kitchen or King’s

Kitchen

Four 15. ……….……

16. A .................. used to turn

5 spits

Music Room

Nine 17. ……….……

Yellow Bow Rooms

A lobby Two bedrooms 18.

and ……….……

satinwood and mahogany

Queen’s Bedroom

Queen’s bedroom Maid’s

room Closet

Brussels 19 .................. with

20..................... bedding and

curtains

Section 3

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Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. What has Irene recently done?

A. She has almost finished planning the experiment.

B. She is not applying herself enough to her work.

C. She spends a lot of time in the laboratory.

22. What is Bill’s attitude toward Kim?

A. He is grateful for Kim's contribution.

B. He is not fond of Kim's tastes in clothes.

C. He thinks Kim is not good at laboratory work.

23. What does Jen think of the other people in the group?

A. The boys are good at maths which is very helpful.

B. They would fail the experiment without Irene’s contribution.

C. Irene has completed the data analysis so the experiment is nearly done.

24. How did Jen and Bill feel about Linda?

A. She was always submitted her work late for the group work.

B. She was difficult to get in touch with.

C. She thought it was easy to get a high score.

25. Why was Jen invited to the professor’s individual project?

A. She was quite popular among students.

B. She always finished reading all the assignments.

C. She was close to the professor.

Question 26- 30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.

What task has been given to each person?

Tasks

A. Abstract

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B. Acknowledgement

C. Methodology

D. Bibliography

E. Literature review

F. Results

G. Discussion

Person

26.Irene …............

27.Kim ...............

28.Jen …............

29.Bill ...............

30.Linda ...............

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35.

Complete the diagrams

below.

Cutaneous Pain

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Visceral Pain

Question 36

Circle the correct letter A-C.

36. Which of the following is an example of reaching the pain threshold?

A spilling boiling water

B burning your hand

C scalding hot water

Question 37

Complete the sentence below. Write NO MORE THAN

TWO WORDS for your answer.

Pain tolerance refers to 37 ............................to pain. Patients should complete a questionnaire

known as Pain Scales: Universal Pain Assessment Tool.

Question 38

Complete the flowchart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for your answer

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Questions 39-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or A NUMBER for each

answer.

Endorphins are a 39 .............................. Their chemical structure is similar to

opioids. Pain Management refers to the use of combinations of drugs, e.g.

administration of paracetamol and opioids. It decreases the amount of opioids to 40.

……………………

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TEST 13

Listen to audio 13 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A

NUMBER for each answer.

Job Enquiry

Example

- name: Freddie Lea

- location: 1 ............. Island

- Starting date: 2.............

- Age: 17

- Four vacancies for 3.............

- Pay: 5.52 per hour

- Qualities required: the ability to 4..............

- Duties:

+ Offer table service

+ Look after 5.............

- Extra advantage: the ability of the candidate to 6...........

- Benefits:

+ free 7................

+ a 8. ............. will be provided

- Interview arranged for 9. ............. at 10:00 am

- Need to take

+ a reference letter from employer

+ a bank statement

+ the application form with a

10….......

Section 2

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Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A

NUMBER for each answer.

Green Home

Three sections available:

11 …............. groceries

Baking Potatoes (Kg) Six 12…………….

£1.57

£0.60

Organic Food

Organic courgettes Brussels sprouts

£2.09

13. ……….……

Fair Trade Products -

14….................. is destined to the farmers in developing countries

Laundry Care

You can get a crystal rain & white lily washing powder if you buy two bottles of 15. ……….……

softener.

Questions 16-17

Circle TWO letters A-F.

16 & 17. Which TWO of the following are own-label products?

A. washing powder

B. degreaser

C. plughole

D. washing-up liquid

E.oven cleaner F sink cleaner

Questions 18-19

Circle TWO letters A-F.

18 & 19. Which TWO of the following are given for free in the kitchenware

aisle?

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A saucepan with glass lid

B stainless steel peeler

C sandwich tin

D apron and oven glove

E aluminium foil

F 12 cup deep bun tray

Question 20

Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.

You can get a free corkscrew if you buy a 20. ……….……

Section 3

Questions 21 – 30

Question 21 – 26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21 How could ancient Africans recognize different stars?

A. by the location of the stars

B. by the way stars affect each other

C. by the distance between two stars

22 In which way do the Weyaka people like to deal with their money?

A. open bank accounts

B. assist others

C. lend money to others

23 What do the Africans obtain from their suffering?

A. ways of protecting their environment

B. approaches to improving their international status

C. reasons for conquering drought

24 What are the local people concerned with?

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A. having enough food

B. getting rid of the disease

C. going back to their former environment

25 What is the reason for the declining financial condition of the African people?

A. They find it hard to trade because of the undeveloped transportation system.

B. They have difficulty in mining minerals. C. They refuse to develop a range of

commercial activities.

26 When can the African people expect to stop suffering from starvation?

A. next year

B. in the long-term future

C. in the near future

Question 27 – 30

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

27. A valuable quality of the Africans is to make up for the difficulties of food transportation.

28. The government intends to pay greater attention to their plan.

29. Nowadays, the Africans are encouraged to in an area consistently.

30. For the Weyaka people, it is impolite to visit someone’s home without.

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34

Complete the diagrams below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer.

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Questions 35-40

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

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TEST 14

Listen to audio 14 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example

What to order before the start coffee

NOTES OF CONCERTS

Types of concerts

Time

Cost

Additional information

1… ........... concert

Every afternoon

2. $ ........ For students

and $6.50 for adults

●

Organise a press

tent

●

Broadcast on local

3.……..

station

4… …........ concert

Friday

Entrance fee: Approx

$40

Decorate with 5……….

Opera Show

6 …………….

Charged by 7……….

There will be a 8……….

Performance

Karaoke Night

Saturday

No group 9………….

To end the show, a

popular 10 …......... will

perform

Section 2

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Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO

WORDS for each answer.

Seven Sisters’ Campsite

Seven sisters are named after 11 ….................. in East

Sussex

Weekly Schedule:

Monday

●

Go on a trail

●

Have a picnic next to a 12. ………. ……

●

Have a swim PS. Activities are subject to 13 …................. conditions

Tuesday

●

Continue up the hill Tuesday Continue up the hill

●

Arrive at a 14. ……….……

●

Go 15. ……….……

●

Have a pebble massage

A range of 16 ….................. are available there, including jet-skiing and parasailing.

Pieces of

Equipment:

There are also boats, 17 …................. and kayaks and you can set out to sea as long as you are

wearing 18. ……….……

You can also go rock-climbing and you can go 19. …................. when you come back

down to earth.

You can talk to your friends while you are near an open 20. ……….…….

Section 3

Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B orC.

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21 Students may fail the exam if they

A. do not collect primary statistics.

B. copy other people’s work.

C. do not follow the instructions.

22 Why does the man think they should avoid including the pictures of the first volcano

in the presentation?

A. They are not attractive.

B. The time is limited.

C. People have never heard of it.

23 About Mount Fago, a volcano in Mexico or the USA, the man thinks

A. they should not use inaccurate information in the presentation.

B. they should use another example.

C. it does not matter where the volcano is.

24 The woman thinks they should mention Mount Etna since

A. it covers most of the important points.

B. It was formed a long time ago..

C. it has stunning views.

25 They agree to leave out Mount Herton as

A. other students have used it before.

B. it is irrelevant to their topic.

C. there is nothing special about this volcano.

Question 26 – 30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.

Which statement applies to each of the following situations?

A. make a short film

B. lacked his/her own points

C. neglect the positive aspect

D. watch some documentaries

E. did not prepare beforehand

F. identify the differences between them.

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26.The woman’s last presentation was criticized because of it

27.The tutor suggests for the next presentation the woman should

28.People do not know enough about volcanoes and so they

29.The reason why the man felt very nervous is that he

30.They are researching active and extinct volcanoes to

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Question 31

Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for your answer.

Petroleum is a 31 ............................ resource as it cannot be replenished.

Questions 32-33

Complete the diagram below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for your answer.

Questions 34-40

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each

answer.

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Natural Resource

How it is Generated

Further Information

Biomass

Plants 34 ...................... solar

energy when they are burnt.

Wind Energy

Wind turbines produce between

600kW and 5MW of rated

power

Wind speeds are higher in

35. ……….……

Hydropower Energy

Hydroelectric dams

run-of-the-river

hydroelectricity derives from

36. ……….……

Geothermal Energy

Heat is trapped in 37. ……….

…… GSHP extracts heat from

the ground

86% of the houses in 38.

……….…… were heated by

geothermal energy in 2000

Biofuels

Biomass They can be divided

into solid biomass, liquid fuels

and biogases

Bioethanol is a 39.

……….…… in the USA and

Brazil. Biodiesel reduces CO

levels in Europe. In 2010, it

provided 40. ....................of

global road transport fuels

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TEST 15

Listen to audio 15 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 -10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A

NUMBER for each answer.

INCIDENT REPORT

Example

Name: Anna Lumley

Telephone: 1.....................

Date of arrival: 2.....................

Address: 235 3 ............... Road, East sea

The total value of insurance: $ 4...................

Missing items:

- lamps and chairs (not expensive)

- furniture and 5...................

- a rocking horse, some 6. ............ and fruit bowls

Items ordered:

- a clock

- a 7................

Damaged items:

- the 8 ............... needs to be replaced

- a 9. .............. of one of the dining chairs are split

- four 10 .......... were broken

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Section 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Induction Day – Papyrus Warehouse

Company Identification Card:

●

Contains the employee’s name, 11 ............... and barcode number

●

Done with the HR department

●

Used to 12 ............... and out daily

Shop Floor – you need the ID card when you open the till and 13. ………. ……

Stock Room – ID card is also used during the 14. ……….……

Warning: Don’t forget to close the till drawer and 15 ..................... of the system.

Staff Restaurant – you can buy snacks if you insert coins into the machines on the 16.

……….…….

Note: Free lunch is provided on busy days, but the cashier has to 17 ......................your card so that

your lunch break is recorded.

Personal Belongings:

They should be put in the 18. ................... available in the

changing rooms.

Mobile phones should be switched off.

Uniform:

StockRoom – a white shirt and a pair of 19. ……….……

Shop Floor – a plain shirt and a suit

Note: Women may wear make-up and use 20 ..................... as long as it looks

neat.

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Section 3

Questions 21 – 30

Question 21 - 25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or

C

21 Why did James choose to work in the bakery?

A. Because it’s close to his home.

B. Because it has a good reputation in the subject area.

C. Because it’s a part of a chain.

22 What was James surprised at in his studies?

A. He finds the theoretical courses easy.

B. He can finish the theoretical courses.

C. He finds the theoretical work interesting.

23 How is James’ course assessed in the first term?

A. The marks are given by students to each other.

B. Self-assessment.

C. It is up to the practical experience.

24 Why has Kate enquired about the English language course?

A. She wants to become an artist.

B. It is her first language.

C. She plans to curate in a gallery.

25 What else did Kate need to get before going to college?

A. starting date of the course

B. an offer with scholarships

C. a catalogue of modules

Questions 26-30

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.

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What statement applies to each of the following courses?

A. There are a lot of background readings.

B. People stay at the studio where the course is taken.

C. Many outside speakers will give a talk.

D. It’s the most difficult course.

E. Students do their own research.

F. Students need to spend a lot of money on a camera with a good display. G. Expensive materials

need to be bought.

26.History of Art

27.Sculpture

28.Digital Painting

29.Art Theory

30.Photography

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Question 31

Circle the correct letter A-C.

31. Which graph shows an increase in the Earth’s temperature in the last 3 decades?

Questions 32-33

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE

THAN TWO WORDS for your answer.

Arctic 32 ............................ release up to 100 million tonnes of methane gas

annually.

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Moreover, 25% of all methane is stored on the land surface and it can be released from 33.

…………………..

Questions 34-40

Complete the diagrams below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.

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TEST 16

Listen to audio 16 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Bud and Annie's families

Annie's family issues:

- father is in bad mood

- mothers .………1…….is increasing again. She needs surgery to replace her ………2……….

- the operation is very expensive, around $ ………….3……………...

- her family is getting problems with ……….4……. because sister does not want to help - her sister

seems to be selfish after the beauty ……….5…………………..

Bud's family issues:

- Annie thought Bud's …..6………..was a nice person but, she turned out to be …7…..after getting

promoted.

- his dad signed a huge …….8………… and looking for some 9………………….

- his parents are currently in France for ………….10……….. Anniversary.

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 13

Choose THREE letters, A-F .

Which THREE things that most people want to spend their income on mentioned by the speaker?

A

people spend the same on enjoyment regardless of age

B

people usually spend 1,500 pounds per month on necessary things

C

people tend to spend much more than what they really want

D

the amount of money spending for the future differs for different people

E

people tend to spend their income widely trzia on different things

F

people mainly invest their money for education and a big house

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Questions 14 - 15

Choose TWO letters, A-E .

Which TWO rules should people follow to manage their money mentioned by the speaker?

A

maximum of 10 percent of the monthly budget is allowed for entertainment and unexpected

things

B

do not spend money on fancy restaurants or drinking

C

only use cash for essentials like house repairs, birthday present

D

Only use credit card to buy something for changing money

E

staying at home when the monthly budget is almost running out

Principles on money investment

16. Why do people need to keep a current deposit in a bank account?

A

for some rainy days

B

for some unexpected cases

C

for retirement

17. Unused money should invest in

A

the government lottery.

B

gambling games.

C

risk investment.

18. Investing money for higher earning potential, people can

A

take a higher risk.

B

make a big fortune in a short period of time.

C

guarantee to get more money back in every situation.

19. What is a balanced portfolio?

A

a wide investment list

B

a steady investment

C

a refundable investment

20. Investing money wisely means

A

putting money into different investments.

B

Spending money on venture capital

C

spending money on low-risk investments.

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 23

Choose the correct letters A,B or C

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21) Andrew has worked at the hospital for

A two years.

B three years.

C five years.

22) During the course Andrew's employers will pay

A his fees.

B his living costs.

C his salary.

23) The part-time course lasts for

A one whole year.

B 18 months.

C two years.

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-E.

What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course?

A a case study.

B an essay.

C a survey.

D a short report.

E a study diary.

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Modular Courses

Students study (26) ............... during each module. A module takes (27) ............... and the work is very

(28) ............... To get a Diploma each student has to study (29) ............... and then work on (30)

............... in depth.

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 – 35

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Write NO MORE THAN three words for each answer

31. According to George Bernard Shaw, men are supposed to understand _________, economics and

finance.

32. However, women are more prepared to _________about them.

33. Women tend to save for ______________and a house.

34. Men tend to save for ______________and for retirement.

35. Women who are left alone may have to pay for ______________________ when they are old.

Questions 36 – 40

Complete the summary below.

Write no more than three words and/or a number for each answer.

Saving for the future

- Most women think about their financial future when a/an 36 ______ occurs.

- Women start thinking about 37 ___________________ when they are in their early twenties .

- To develop their 38 ____________________________in dealing with financial affairs would be to

attend classes in money 39 ____________________.

- Women should put a high proportion of their savings in low risk investments and the rest for 40

_________ones which can offer them a comfortable, independent retirement.

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TEST 17

Listen to audio 17 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1 - 6

Contact Details on buying a used car

Model:

Celica

Year:

1985

Number of owners:

…………...1……………….

Condition:

•

overall good.

•

………..2………….. were replaced last year

Reason for selling:

moving 3……………….

Asking price:

£……...4……………..

Appointment time:

………….5…………………….

Address:

……………..6…………… St, Parkwood.

Contact name:

Elena

Questions 7-10

Circle the correct letter A-C.

7. What happened to Sam’s car?

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A. It was replaced by another one.

B. It broke down.

C. It was stolen.

8. Why does Jan need a car now?

A. She lives too far from the university.

B. She spends too much time on the bus.

C. She would feel safer at night with a car.

9. What does Sam recommend?

A. check the service records

B. avoid buying an old car

C. get a mechanical inspection

10. How are they travelling to Elena’s?

A. by motorcycle

B. on foot

C. by bus

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11-13

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap.

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Questions 14 - 16

Complete the table below

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap:

Whale identification chart

Color

size

General characteristics

Dolphins

Grey

1 - 2 metres

•

Swim fast

•

Playful

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•

…...14…...

Orcas & Killer

whales

Black and

white

7 - 8

metres

•

…..15…… hunters

•

Eat fish, seals and other

whales

Grey whales

Grey

14 metres

•

………..16…

•

Filter feeders, eat shrimp

•

Distinctive tail fins

Questions 17 - 20

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

Advice for Participants on Whale Watching Excursions

• For a smooth ride, sit in the middle near the boat’s ………….17………………...

• Watch the waves and hold onto the …………..18……………..

• Survival suits are …………19………... in colour for maximum visibility.

• For seasickness: Place a patch on your wrist instead of taking ……20………....

Section 3

Questions 21- 30

Questions 21-23

Fill in the summary below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space.

Selection Process for ‘Travel Documentary’

• 34 interviewed from 21…………………. applicants nationally

• 13 chosen for a 22……………………... training course in film-making

• 23……………………. finalists selected as competitors

Questions 24-26

• produce a 24……………... every two weeks

• no previous professional 25………………….. experience allowed

• make their own 26………………... and obtain approval

Questions 27-30

27. What did Sarah Price share about her feelings on the trip last year?

A

unforgettable memory

B

pretty exhausting

C

very exciting

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28. What was Sarah Price's worst experience during the trip?

A

She got lost in Mongolia.

B

She was homesick

C

She got sick in a remote place.

29. In which of the following areas does Ray expect to have most difficulty?

A

loneliness

B

time pressure

C

organisation skills

30. In what month does the journey begin?

A

February

B

March

C

April

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 33

Circle the correct answer A-C.

History of technology series

31. What does QWERTY stand for?

A letters on the top row of the keyboard

B the company that made the first typewriter

C letters on the home row of the keyboard

32. The first commercial typewriter was developed in ...

A Germany.

B Great Britain.

C United States.

33. The purpose of the QWERTY keyboard layout was ...

A to slow down typing speed.

B to prevent keys from sticking.

C to reduce typing inefficiency.

Questions 34 - 40

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Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.

History of Dvorak keyboard

In 1932 August Dvorak solved the inefficiency problem by redesigning the …...34………. of the

typewriter. He put the most frequently typed, ……...35………. on the home row. Using the Dvorak

keyboard 70 percent of the ……...36………….load can be handled from the home row. In contrast,

only 50 words can be typed from the home row on the Qwerty keyboard. Other advantages of the

Dvorak keyboard include a 50 percent improvement in

……..37…………….

And a 15-20 percent increase in ……..38…….. But the most important difference is in finger

movement. Typists using the Dvorak keyboard moved their fingers around one ……..39……….per day,

much shorter than using the Qwerty one. However, the Dvorak keyboard was never adopted as the

Qwerty one remains …………..40………………

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TEST 18

Listen to audio 18 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Ascot Child Care Centre

Enrolment form

Personal details

Family name:

Cullen

Child’s first name:

…………..1……………..

Age:

………...2…………...

Birthday:

………..3…………..

Other children in the family:

a brother aged ………...4……………….

Address:

………….5………..Rd., Brisbane

Emergency contact number:

3467 8890

Relationship to child:

…………….6……………...

Development

• Has difficulty ……7…... during the day

• Is able to ……8…….. herself

Child-care arrangements

Days required: Monday and 9……………….

Pick-up time:

………..10…………….

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Section 2

Questions 11 – 20

Children activities during Holiday

Things to do in the holidays

-

Main problem - children do not have a traditional ………………..11……….

Some ideas

-

Give children jobs, for example cleaning the …………..12…………….

-

At home, ask children to help in the …………..13………………

-

Get children to make …...14……….. ahead of time

-

Get children involved in community work such as visiting the …………...15………..

-

Involve older children in long-term …...16…………. In your community

-

You may get some ideas from the ………...17……………..

-

The local ………..18………… is often the best place to find ideas

Things to remember

-

Make sure children stay ………..19…………….

-

Children up to the age of ……….20………... need to be supervised by an adult

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21-24

Choose the correct answer A, B or C

21. According to John, what is the main advantage of space exploration?

A. To supply resources for use on Earth.

B. To find out more about the origins of our planet.

C. To establish a colony for humans if Earth becomes uninhabitable.

22. According to the speakers, why can’t robots be sent into space instead of humans?

A. They cannot operate for long enough.

B. They are too expensive to build.

C. They are too reliant on humans.

23. What are we told about the space technology currently used?

A. It can be unreliable.

B. It is based on old technology.

C. It is becoming cheaper to produce.

24. What is the biggest problem in sending robots to Mars?

A. the distance

B. the atmosphere

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C. the extreme temperatures

Questions 25-30

Who expresses the following opinions?

Persons

A John

B Susan

C Both John and Susan

Opinions

25. We should plan a trip to Mars even though it may not happen soon.

26. We may eventually colonise Mars.

27. The soil on Mars is highly toxic.

28. The soil on Mars contains materials we could use.

29. Spaceships cannot be totally protected from radiation.

30. It is possible that humans could form a base on Mars.

Section 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.

The history of dentistry

Early history

The earliest reference to problems with teeth was in 31 ______

The ancient Sumerians called problems with teeth ‘tooth 32 ______

There is 33 ______ to show that the Chinese used dental treatments.

Remedies and treatment

An old text from 34 ______ reveals medical practices from 1700 to 1500 BC. The

text refers to the use of 35 ______ and 36 ______ to relieve toothache.

In the fifth century BC a Greek 37 ______ noted the beginnings of specialisation

in medicine.

A Greek doctor was the first to 38 ______ problem teeth.

In Europe during the 39 ______, doctors performed dentistry in people’s homes.

A dentist from France is said to have founded 40 ______ dentistry.

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TEST 19

Listen to audio 19 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 – 10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Complaint Record Form

Holiday booked in name of:

Last name:

………….1……………..

First name:

Andrew

Address:

Flat 4 ……………..2……………..House, Winchester SO2 4ER

Daytime telephone number:

…………….3……………...

Booking reference:

…………….4……………...

Special offer:

Yes, from ………….5………………. company

Insurance:

Yes, had …………...6……………...policy

Type of holiday booked:

………….7…………… break

Date holiday commenced:

………….8…………….

Details of complaint:

no ………….9…………….. At station

a/an ………..10…………… was missing

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 15

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Questions 16 – 17

Circle the correct letters A, B or C

16. The number of students to be relocated is..

A. 10

B. 6

C. 30

17. The number of students being relocated to each wing is

A. 10

B. 6

C. 30

Questions 18 – 20

Circle THREE letters A-E. Which THREE of the following changes were mentioned?

A. new computer desks

B. study desks

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C. new beds

D. lamps

E. painting of rooms

F. Book shelves

G. Study chairs

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

David feels that progress on the project has been slow because other members of the group are not

compliancing with the 21…………………………...

Jane thinks that personal 22 ……………………….. were not clearly established.

Dr Wilson suggests that the group use the 23……………...module available from the Resource

Centre.

David doubts that the research will include an adequate consulting 24……………………...

.

According to Dr Wilson, the 25…………………... is now the most important thing to focus on.

Jane believes the group could make more use of some 26…………………………….

Questions 27-30

Complete the timetable below.

Choose your answers from the box and unite the letters A-H next to questions 27-30.

A

Compare photographs at newspaper offices.

B

Interview a local historian.

C

Listen to tapes in the die City Library.

D

Study records of shop ownership.

E

Take photographs of the castle area.

F

Talk to the archivist at the City Library.

G

Tour city centre using copies of old maps.

H

Visit an exhibition at the University Library.

MON - WED: FIELD TRIP TO CAMBRIDGE

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Mon 22nd

am

Arrive at hotel

pm

27…………….

Tue 23rd

am

28…………….

pm

Free time

Wed 24th

am

29………………..

pm

30………………..

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Write ONE WORD only in each gap

The Inuit

Background

-

are the native 31……………………….. of Alaska and Canada

-

Migrated across gap between Alaska and Siberia

-

Originally came from the continent of 32…………………….

-

The name “Inuit” means “The people”

-

Inuit 33………………… began years ago

-

Norse 34……………….. Lived near Inuit around 1000 AD

Housing

-

Inuit worked for 35……………. in the 1800s

-

well adapted to the Arctic

-

in summer:

+ dwelled in 36…………………….

+ traveled in

37…………………..

-

In winter

+ lived in ice house or 'igloos'

+

traveled by

38…………………….

-

Took 1- 2 hours to build

Food:

-

39………………..

whales - the main source of food

-

polar bears hunted on land

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-

Constantly looking food

-

Major 40…………………..of Inuit currently located in Alaska and Canada

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TEST 20

Listen to audio 20 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Accommodation request form

Name:

Jenny Chan

Present address:

Sea View Guest House, 1……………………..Rd

Daytime phone number:

2…………... [NB Best lime to contact is 9-9:30 ]

Age:

19

Intended length of stay:

3…………………….

Occupation while in UK:

student

General level of English:

4…………………...

Preferred location:

in the 5…………………….

Special diet:

6……………………..

Other requirements:

- own 7……………………

- own television

- a/an 8……………………….

- to be only guest

Maximum price:

£ ..……9……….. a week

Preferred starting date:

…………..10…………………..

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11-13

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

- The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the ……11………... in King's Park on 2 July.

- The first event is a ……………12……………...

- At the final dinner, players receive ……………13…………..

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Questions 14-17

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Competition

Number of teams

Games begin

Training session ( In

King’s park)

14…………………..

10

15…………………..

Wednesday afternoons

Senior

16…………………….

2:30 pm

17……………. afternoons

Questions 18-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Responsibility

Person

A Manage the club’s finance

Gina Cosello: 18…………...

B Train the football team

David West: 19……………….

C Buy new equipments

Jason Dokic: 20…………………..

D Receive the fees

E Collect the feedback

F Deliver newsletters

G Manage meetings

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 23

Choose THREE letters, A-F.

Which THREE reasons have Bill and Ann not prepared their presentation in class yet?

A

Bill has been taking care of his mother

B

Ann's neighbors cannot help her with chores

C

Bill spends more time on other things

D

Ann spends more time on her business

E

Bill is too buy with other courses

F

Ann helps her mom with housework

Questions 24 - 25

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

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Which TWO things are correct about the topic in their class that Bill and Ann have to present?

A

personal characteristics are influenced by uniform

B

wearing a uniform during carrying out experiment in Los Angeles

C

it seems like what Bill read before

D

it is about things to do during summer vacation

E

ProbIem of wearing a uniform in high school

Questions 26 - 30

26. Students volunteered in the experiment

A

Had a clue for what will happen

B

were not informed in advance about what will happen.

C

were arrested to a police station.

27. What did the volunteers encounter in the experiment?

A

They did not know that other volunteers had encountered the same thing.

B

They were informed about what they had to wear.

C

They did not know why they had to get charged.

28. In the old experiment, volunteers

A

played a role as arrested persons

B

recognised the experimental purpose.

C

came from different universities.

29. Arrested volunteers in the old experiment

A

were treated like real prisoners.

B

were told to act like prison guards.

C

were not allowed to sleep.

30. What did the volunteers feel during the experiment?

A

The volunteers playing guards with psychological trauma.

B

They all suffered psychological trauma

C

The volunteers playing prisoners with psychological trauma.

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONLY ONE WORD in each gap.

Sales and Marketing

Introduction

- advertising is used to make a company successful via different types of

31………………...

- advertising

32……………...(radio, newspapers, TV, etc.) is not mentioned in this lecture

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- 33………………….

advertising helps to achieve our goals while saving money

- the most common objective of the advertiser is to change customers' behaviour and 34…………..

Advertising for brands

- customers tend to buy products from a company as they 35…………………….. their brand name

- promoting a brand is supposed to make customers remember product

36………………….

- a famous company with a good brand name could not market successfully other products

- company names usually advertise before their goods and 37……………………….

- SanFran Video Store 38…………………….. had promoted by handing out flyers

- Chanel is successfully in advertising either company name or products such as 39…………………..

- it is essential to be mutually 40…………………...

in different types of advertising

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TEST 21

Listen to audio 21 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Apartment Information

Maximum rental:

$....1………………...

per week

Minimum period of contract:

……………..2…………………….

Log on the website:

www …………………..3……………… .com

Things included

- a circuit ………..4…………… in all apartments

In the rent:

- kitchen equipments:

+ a/an ……..5………………….

+ a/an …………...6………………...

- …………….7……………… bill

Client information:

Full name:

Angela …………..8…………………..

Address:

………...9…………… Rd.. Melford

MF45JB

Tel:

………….10……………………

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 13

Choose the correct letters A,B or C

11. What is the company’s sales figures trend from 2005-2010?

A

Fluctuation, with great increase in the first stage

B

no change during the period

C

great increase during the period

12. What is the relationship of the three departments this year?

A

both Furniture and home appliances are decreased.

B

only apparel is decreased.

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C

all three departments remain unchanged.

13. Which is the best description about the number trend of temporary staff in the company?

A The trend is the same over the years.

B The trend turns down this year.

C The trend is increasing over the years.

Questions 14 - 18

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

Parkson Approach to Retail Business

Mission Statement

-

the drive to

…………..14………………...

-

pursuing ways need to be creative and distinctive to fulfill customer's demand

Four Priorities

-

compelling and distinctive assortments

- ……………..15 …………………….

- enhanced shopping experience

- …………...16………………..

Magical Special Events

-

Thanksgiving Day Parade

-

Halloween Fireworks

-

celebrity appearances

-

……..17…………………...

-

Arrival of Santa Claus

- …………..18……………….

- animated window displays

Questions 19 - 20

Choose TWO letters. A-E.

Which TWO things must be done today?

A

handing in application form

B

reading the brochure

C

submitting certificate

D

applying for staff discount

E

getting security pass

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 22

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

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- Art Deco takes its name from a/an ………...21…………… held in Paris

- Both Art Deco and Art Modern were more often used for 22…………………….. high-rise building

blocks.

Questions 23 - 27

Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

Art Deco

- facades with 23…………………… designs

- Polychromy

- Straight edges and 24………………. Shapes

- Vertical emphasis

Art modern

- Flat roofed building rooms, curved corners

- smooth walls without 25…………………..

- more ……………..26…………… than Deco

- …...27……………….. Emphasis

Questions 28 - 30

Choose the correct letters A,B or C

28. What do the students want to do in class?

A

showing presentation on photos of buildings

B

taking class pictures

C

discussing about how to take the building pictures

29. What do they need to do before taking photos?

A

finding the way to the lobby of the building first

B

talking to Professor Vargas

C

asking for permission

30. Who does the woman want to turn to for help?

A

the building manager

B

building guard

C

building receptionist

Section 4

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Questions 31- 40

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

The Aztec

General History

- the Aztec 31………………….. Existed between the 14th and 16th century

-

the capital city of Aztec was in the centre of the 32…………………… Mexico city

Food

- the staple food of Aztecs was 33………………….. Which has been domesticated for thousands of

years, and spread to the rest of the world from Mexico.

-

the Aztecs also had other diet such as 34………………, squash

Clothing

-

the clothing of the Aztec was diverse based on different 35……….. community

-

Aztec clothes were generally made of imported cotton or ayate fiber

-

the Aztecs were able to create beautiful colors using a lot of 36…………………...

Education

- girls were instructed about cooking, caring for a family, 37………………. and ways to

economically run the home

- boys, however, learned trades, fighting and 38…………………….. Skills

Region

-

the Aztecs went to 39………………….. to send their tribute and pray

- The tribute included not only agricultural but also rare and 40………………… products

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TEST 22

Listen to audio 22 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Question 1-10

Questions 1-4

Choose the correct letters A, B or C.

1. Currently, the man is studying

A. Business

B. Education

C. Maths

2. The man wants to study

A. Education

B. Business

C. Accounting

3. When are the Registration Packs available for first-year students?

A. November

B. September

C. December

4. To complete the registration process, the student has

A. One-month

B. Two months

C. Three months

Questions 5-7

Complete the form below.

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Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

REQUEST FOR INFORMATION

NAME

Richard Dreyfus

ADDRESS

5. Unit 12 ………………………. Avenue, Mermaid Beach,4554

TELEPHONE

6. ……………………

EMAIL

7. dreyfus@…………………….

Questions 8-10

Choose THREE letters A-F

Which THREE ways to register are mentioned?

A. by email

B. by mail

C. by phone

D. in person

E. text message

F. by facsimile

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11-16

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The Hotel

- You must book 11…………………….. in advance.

- There are some interesting 12……………………. in the lounge.

Activities

- The visit to the 13………………….. has been cancelled.

- There will be a talk about 14……………. from the area on Saturday.

- The visit to the 15…………………... will take place on Sunday.

- There is a collection of 16…………………. in the art gallery.

Questions 17-20

Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.

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Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters A-E.

What two suggestions does Gloria give to Paul?

A talk with past graduates

B chooses from Science, Maths or English

C study subjects that he naturally likes

D consult the university handbook

E go to the office of Academic Affairs

Questions 23-27

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Title

Author

Year published

Publisher

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What should I do?

Smith,P

2000

23………………….

24………………..

Newton,J

2000

25…………………..

26…………………..

White,J

27…………………..

Brown and Tate

Questions 28 – 30

Choose THREE letters A – F

Which THREE points helped Gloria to Choose her course

A she spoke with her parents

B she talked with friends

C she looked at jobs that were available

D she researched typical working hours

E she liked mathematics

F she liked working with people

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.

Type of

writing

Notes

Tips

Short stories

three basic styles

Start with a/an 31…………..

Non-fiction

biographies often popular

Tells publishers about your field of

32………………..

Articles

advice articles work well

Write for a definite 33…………..

Poetry

meaning shouldn’t be too

34

………………….

Read your poems aloud

Plays

movements usually decided by the

35…………………...

Learn about acting

Radio

BBC published handbook

Try 36……………… stations first

Children’s

Literature

Illustrations important

Decide on an age 37………...

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38. What is a disadvantage of first person narration in novels?

A

It makes it harder for the main character to be interesting.

B

It is difficult for beginners to do well.

C

It limits what can be described.

39. What is a mistake when writing novels?

A

failing to include, enough detail

B

trying to explain ironic effects

C

including too many characters

40. In order to make dialogue seem natural, writers should

A

Writers should make recordings of real conversations.

B

include unfinished sentences

C

break up long speeches

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TEST 23

Listen to audio 23 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Finnegan's Flight Centre

Flight info:

- from Hong Kong to Singapore on 25 July

- it takes approximately 3 hours 1…………………. Minutes

- the passenger should check in before ………..2……………

- the passenger cannot change their flight dates because of work …...3…

- the passenger will fly back to Hong Kong on ….4…………..

- the passenger wants to ……….5…………… as soon as she gets back

Other information:

•

Bert will …...6……….. the confirmation details to the passenger

•

the maximum weight for ……….7……….. Luggage is 10kg

•

the passenger will check in one ……..8………. at extra cost

•

the reservation number is ……...9……………..

•

the passenger is for a seat next to the ……….10……………..

Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

- Many 11……………... happen around cars.

- Night time travel on 12…………….. should be avoided.

- In the event of a break-down in a lonely place, wait in the car for help from a police car or another

13……………….

- When being followed, if there is no police station nearby, find an open garage or store or go straight

to an 14…………………….

- The police station is located on the ………..15………….. Between the canal street and the cockleshell

court

Questions 16-20

Match the toxic gases in the box to the effects below.

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Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-E next to questions 16-20.

List of toxic gases

A carbon dioxide

B nitrogen oxide

C carbon monoxide

D hydrogen sulphide

E Low oxygen air

List of effects

16. People suffer mental impairment

17. It hurts the lungs

18. It makes you breathe faster

19. You cannot see it or smell it

20. It numbs the respiratory tract

Section 3

Questions 21 – 30

Questions 21 - 25

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD in each gap

New Zealand Government System

-

New Zealand system of government = a constitutional ………………….21……………..

-

Elected House of Representatives = Parliament

-

Queen’s representative – Governor ……………………22…………..

Questions 23 – 25

Complete the flow chart below:

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap

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Questions 26 - 30

Choose the correct letters A,B or C

26. A constitution containing rules for governing is

A

a written document.

B

still a controversial form.

C

an issue passed by Parliament.

27. New Zealand has some unwritten

A

constitutions.

B

simple laws.

C

conventions.

28. A parliament with only one chamber is called

A

House of Representatives.

B

Upper House.

C

Unicameral.

29. New Zealand's voting system is known as

A

Member of Political Party.

B

Member Proportional Representation.

C

Member of Parliament Representatives.

30. Political parties are represented proportionally in parliament according to

A

the share of votes gained in the election.

B

the share of votes in preferred political party.

C

the share of votes in every party

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Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Questions 31 - 36

Which of the following descriptions is appropriate for the hat color below?

Choose SIX answers from the list below and write the correct letter A-F , next to Questions 31-36.

List of hat color

List of description

A

Black

A creative response - be inventive:

B

Blue

An emotional response - use intuition:

C

Green

A managerial response - like control:

D

Red

An optimistic response - be encouraging:

E

White

A pessimistic response - be wary:

F

Yellow

A rational response - focus on data:

Questions 37 - 40

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap

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The stepladder technique

Step 1

37…………………………. Members presented the task

Step 2

A 38…………………………. of two members is created

Step 3

third member added; discuss 39…………………..together

Step 4

Repeat the process adding fourth member

Step 5

All members reach a/an 40 ……………..

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TEST 24

Listen to audio 24 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Notes on Adult education Classes

Number of classes:

7 per week

Tuesday:

-

…………...1……………(6- 7:30 PM)

+

limited space: no more than ………….2…………. Participants

-

Book Club

+

must read ………..3……………. Books

-

………….4…………. Group

+

learn about local events last century

Wednesday: - Scrabble club ( 2 - …………...5………………)

+ Popular

Thursday:

- Chess night

+ serious

- …………….6……………………

•

For special occasions

Adult learners' Week:

- no cost but must make ………...7………….

+

September 1 - 8

-

Techno Expo

+ learn how to use ………...8…………… tools

+

learn about online security issues and online entertainment

+

Monday, 1 - 4: 30 pm

•

……………...9………………..

+

consider values

+

learn how to attain harmony

+

Wednesday, 1 - 4.30 pm

-

Venue: ……………..10…………………..

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Section 2

Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11-14

Choose the correct letter.

(11) Most infants are hurt

A at the supermarket.

B at home.

C in car accidents.

(12) Children should learn good safety habits from

A their pre-school teachers.

B television programs.

C their parents.

(13) Why are kitchens more dangerous for infants than adults ?

A They may get stood on.

B They may get burnt.

C They may cut themselves.

(14) Poisons should never be kept

A in glass drink bottles.

B within reach of adults.

C in their original containers.

Questions 15-16

Which TWO items of playground equipment pose the most danger for children ?

A Roundabouts

B Slides

C Swings

D Seesaws

E Climbing frames

Questions 17-20

Complete the information below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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- If you are bathing the baby, let the phone …………17………..

- If you can install protective …………..18…………..to stop a child from poking things into a

powerpoint.

- The parent should go ……………...19……….. to smoke a cigarette

- The parents shouldn’t leave infants alone in a room with …………..20…………..

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 26

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in each gap.

Habitat on Wetlands

A wetland is an area where the soil is typically water-logged. Plants and animals living there depend on

the wetness for their 21…………….. Draining swamps is a widespread occurrence which kills off

wildlife and, consequently, wetlands are 22……….... worldwide. It is a feature of wetlands that

conditions vary according to 23……………... Water-tolerant

plants grow both in and out of the water and water - levels are usually quite

24………... Wetlands naturally occur between land and water and become 25………… for various

wildlife during very dry periods. They also act as nurseries for different kinds of animal life. Wetlands

are known to upgrade the water's 26…………... by removing pollutants.

Questions 27 - 30

Complete the diagram below

The process diagram has four gaps. Choose the correct letter, A - H. and move it into the suitable

place.

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A

ecosystems

B

Green leaves

C

Decomposed litter

D

Nourishment cycle

E

Seedlings

F

Roots in the air

G

Aerial stems

H

Tree seeds

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.

Meteorology

-

Elements which produce weather:

+

31……………………

+

troposphere

+

water vapour

+

32……………………….

-

Different types of cloud formation:

+

cumulus is a low cloud layer with white color and 33……………….. shape

+

stratus is a grey cloud with 34………………… appearance

+

35…………... is considered as ground clouds

+

Cirrus is a high cloud layer with wispy, 36……………. shape

+

cumulonimbus is the highest cloud layer, connected to the troposphere to

37………………..

hailstones, heavy rain, tornadoes, etc.

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-

Old assumption: large dust particles —> bigger 38…………….—> more rain

-

New research: more dust ------> less rain (because water too dispersed to form 39…………….

-

Conclusion: loss of topsoil in nearby areas —> progressive 40………….

of deserts

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TEST 25

Listen to audio 25 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 - 10

Questions 1-6

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each

answer.

Small claims tribunal – Claim form

Claimant’s name:

Emily-Jane Appleby

Address:

1 Yeronga Street, (1).........................

Postcode:

4105

Telephone No. (home):

(2).........................................

Respondent:

(3).........................................

Company name:

ABC appliances ltd

Address:

(4)............................................... avenue, Bardon

Postcode:

(5)...............................................

Telephone no. (work):

72324681

Date (of transaction):

3rd Feb, 2011

Guarantee:

(6)..................................................

Questions 7-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each

answer.

Details of the claim:

Goods:

(7)............................................

– (‘Mallard’ brand, ‘Whisper’ model, serial no. XY303)

Agreed to pay:

(8) ……………………………….. pounds

Advantages:

- Uses less energy because it has shorter cycle

- Reduces the amount of (9)......................... used

- Whisper quiet

Complaint:

- the cycle is longer and the appliance is very (10)................

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Section 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

- The coach is comfortable because it is ……11……………………..

- After all passengers are aboard, the coach will make its first stop at …12………………… Island.

- The ‘Tree Top Walk’ is above a …………13……………

- Passengers will have a ………14…………. with the alpacas before boarding the bus for home.

Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 25

Choose the correct letters. A, B or C.

21. According to the liaison officer volunteers help

A

improve language program.

B

provide quality education.

C

staff members in education system.

22. Volunteers help students check and correct

A

written responses.

B

assignments.

C

presentation reports

23. What aspect of students' self-management can volunteers assist greatly with improving?

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A

organizational skills

B

problem-solving skills

C

Independent thinking skills

24. What will volunteers try to develop in the students so that they exert themselves more?

A

strong determinations

B

enthusiasm for personal work

C

hard work and diligence

25. What is it that teachers have that allows them to respond to individual student requirements?

A

exchange of information and skills

B

many different teaching styles

C

partnerships between teachers

Questions 26 - 30

Which of the following phrases is appropriate for the contents below?

Choose FIVE answers from the below and write the correct letter. A-H next to Questions 26-30.

List of phrases List of contents

A

vocational learning experiences

Sharon and Lester have different: …...26…..

B

practical components

Sharon and Lester help students': …...27….

C

self-learning software

The program is well underway: ….28…...

D

academic background

The liaison officer is impressed by: ….29…..

E

marine studies

Students are encouraged to take part in: ..30….

F

interesting developments

G

scholastic competitions

H

building and construction

Section 4

Questions 31 - 40

Anxiety

General information

-

someone in an anxiety state has worse anxiety 31……………………. than normal

-

a phobia may stem from heredity or 32…………………….. problems

-

The reason for the final breakdown is generally linked with 33…………………….

-

occurrences like the loss of a loved one or a health crisis

Phobic states

-

Agoraphobia:

fears leaving the home 34……………………..

-

Claustrophobia:

fears small 35…………………….

-

Social phobia:

+ feels extremely shy in the 36…………….. of people

+ becomes…….37…….in front of other people

+ gets sweaty…………..38………..of the body

- Single phobia:

+ has a deep-seated …...39……….. to a particular creatures (eg: Dogs,

cats, spiders etc)

+ fears of the…………….40………………

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TEST 26

Listen to audio 26 and answer the questions below.

Section 1

Questions 1 – 10

Questions 1 - 6

Membership Application Form

Membership time:

7 years

Type of ID:

……….1……………….

ID No.:

……….2………………….

Family name:

Black

Other name:

Gavin Raymond

Date of birth:

January 22, 1973

ID expiry date:

………...3……………, 2012

Address:

………..4……………...St, Meadowbank

Class of vehicle:

……….5………………..

Endorsements:

None

Convictions:

…………...6…………….. (1993)

Questions 7 - 10

Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER in each gap.

Type

...7…………...

Bronze

Silver

Gold

Standard

care

5% discount

7.55 discount

50% discount off

……..8……...

Insurance

$10 off fee

$20 off fee

Free …….9…….

Personal

loans

0.25%

reduction

0.5%

reduction

……..10………

reduction

1.25% reduction

Section 2

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Questions 11 - 20

Questions 11 - 16

Choose the correct letters A, B or C

11. Diners can be served inside the restaurant or

A

in the courtyard.

B

in the gardens.

C

in the terrace.

12. Visitors can put on their swimsuits in order to

A

play on the beach

B

swim on the beach

C

play in the water spray areas.

13. The Cottage houses a museum,

A

A cinema room and information centre.

B

information centre and homestead model.

C

homestead model and cinema room.

14. The Garden Nursery is the place to buy

A

handicrafts and statues

B

Garden sculptures and ornaments.

C

handmade souvenirs and pots.

15. The Wood Crafting Shed is a great place to buy

A

Garden accessories and wooden products.

B

wooden products and toys

C

Toys and garden accessories

16. The avocado fruit at Summerland is picked by

A

machine.

B

hand.

C

both machine and hand.

Questions 17 -20

The map has four gaps. Choose the correct letter A- H and move it into the suitable gap.

telegram: @instalingo

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Section 3

Questions 21 - 30

Questions 21 - 25

Write ONE WORD ONLY in each gap.

- In hydroculture, plants are grown with their roots in water so 21……………..is necessary for the upper

part of the plant.

- LECA is made from 22……………………….

-The plant would get through the 23……………….by making a hole in it.

- The plants are then nourished with a nutrient 24…………………….in a container

- A layer of litter is supported by a rigid 25………………………….

Questions 26 - 27

Choose TWO letters A- E

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Which TWO kinds of products are especially suited to the nutrient film technique?

A peas

B beans

C potatoes

D yams

E tomatoes

Questions 28 - 30

Choose THREE letters A- F

Which of the THREE following things correctly describes a substratum?

A

potential failure in changing system

B

only adaptable to innovative equipments

C

Mineral wool

D

rock

E

paper fibre

Section 4

Questions 31- 40

The Grand Old Duke of Newyork

General background of Frederick

-

Frederick was the same of the duke made famous in a well-known 31………………

-

Frederick was aged 32……………………. when he was sent to war

-

his battles against the 33……………… ended in total disaster

-

In 1798, George III gave his son as a/an 34……………… with the ranks of the military

-

Frederick should not be held

wholly accountable for failing: the 35………………….

of his fighters made victory difficult to achieve

- the people Frederick commanded were mostly old men, new conscripts or 36……………

The Duke of York

- wanted to enlist better types of 37……………………

- made the army better by bringing in chaplains, medics, and veterinary 38…………………..

- established a college for preparing army 39……………….

- Gave up the position of Commander-in-Chief in 1807 because of a 40……………………..

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SOLUTION

Test 1

Section 1

1.

Classic

2.

Jonathan

3.

January 21st

4.

island

5.

1

6.

Queen

7.

02046751222

8.

tutor

9.

mother

10. 1000

Section 2

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. A

15. Gardening art

16. pear

17. watermill

18. refreshments

19. River cotton

20. Strawberries

Section 3

21. London museum

22. Telephone interviews

23. 90 people

24. Ceramic

25. Peru

26. Surface

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27. Local clay

28. Dried

29. Sorting

30. The rich people

Section 4

31. C

32. A

33. A

34. B

35. C

36. A

37. A

38. B

39. B

40. D

Test 2

Section 1

1.

unfriendly

2.

noisy

3.

23.50

4.

insects

5.

bathrooms

6.

party

7.

shadforth

8.

towel

9.

breakfast

10. Kitchen

Section 2

11. B

12. A

13. C

14. B

15. A

16. A

17. E

18. C

19. F

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20. A

Section 3

21. A

22. B

23. A

24. B

25. A

26. A

27. Background

28. Theory

29. Cost (s)

30. Time

Section 4

31. religion(s)

32. nature

33. flight

34. stars

35. practical

36. education

37. king

38. entertainment

39. opera

40. electricity

Test 3

Section 1

1.

3000 words

2.

surprising

3.

16

4.

1st August

5.

Comp4ss

6.

Post

7.

Authors

8.

Online

9.

Public

10. Spain

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Section 2

11. Water

12. Ride

13. Noon

14. Sharks

15. Birthday

16. Government

17. Quiz

18. E

19. C

20. B

Section 3

21. D

22. B

23. math(s)

24. Theory

25. Engines

26. seminars

27. A

28. B

29. C

30. C

Section 4

31. Supportive

32. Attention

33. Steps

34. Consistent

35. graphics

36. Tone

37. silence(s)

38. Verbs

39. Repeat

40. predicting

Test 4

Section 1

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1.

wife

2.

staff

3.

students

4.

10th December

5.

6

6.

dictionaries

7.

Maker

8.

Tapes

9.

Photos

10. Speech

Section 2

11. B

12. A

13. A

14. A

15. B

16. 180

17. Nearest station

18. Local history

19. 690

20. Walking club

Section 3

21. 20 balloons

22. measurement(s)

23. Rock

24. crystals

25. String

26. Light

27. H

28. B

29. E

30. C

Section 4

31. 795

32. Tail

33. Floor

34. Smell

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35. A

36. A

37. B

38. B

39. B

40. E

Test 5

Section 1

1.

Jamieson

2.

afternoon

3.

Communication

4.

week

5.

10

6.

Suit

7.

Passport

8.

Personality

9.

Feedback

10. Time

Section 2

11. A

12. B

13. A

14. C

15. River

16. 1422

17. Top

18. pass

19. Steam

20. Capital

Section 3

21. G

22. F

23. A

24. E

25. B

26. C

27. C

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28. A

29. B

30. D

Section 4

31. Shelter

32. Oil

33. roads

34. Insects

35. grass

36. water

37. Soil

38. Dry

39. Simple

40. Nests

Test 6

Section 1

1.

black

2.

2085

3.

9456 1309

4.

2020BD

5.

July

6.

B

7.

D

8.

F

9.

$25

10. Next week

Section 2

11. Route book

12. 900 miles

13. North Africa

14. A

15. C

16. B

17. C

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18. E

19. B

20. D

Section 3

21. Friday

22. Biology

23. 57

24. 43

25. Wednesday

26. Recording lectures

27. skimming

28. French revolution

29. Why study history

30. Animal language

Section 4

31. Four-month certificate

32. Employment

33. One-year diploma

34. No qualifications

35. Six-month certificate

36. C

37. F

38. B

39. G

40. D

Test 7

Section 1

1.

208 613 2978

2.

Visiontech

3.

Doctor

4.

Garage

5.

Furniture

6.

Fridge

7.

School

8.

950 dollars

9.

Quiet

10. Friend

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Section 2

11. Contact

12. Emergency

13. Radio

14. keys

15. locks

16. C

17. D

18. F

19. G

20. E

Section 3

21. C

22. A

23. B

24. C

25. A

26. G

27. A

28. D

29. C

30. E

Section 4

31. food

32. hero

33. Feathers

34. Shells

35. diamond

36. shark

37. teeth

38. messages

39. Meeting

40. escape

Test 8

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Section 1

1.

listening

2.

vocabulary

3.

general

4.

15

5.

department

6.

May

7.

Week 5

8.

B

9.

D

10. G

Section 2

11. C

12. A

13. B

14. B

15. C

16. B

17. E

18. G

19. C

20. A

Section 3

21. D

22. C

23. B

24. third

25. industry

26. plan(s)

27. laboratory

28. seminar(s)

29. pairs

30. Interview

Section 4

31. narrower

32. garden(s)

33. superstore(s)

34. glass

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35. Older

36. Waste

37. windfarm(s)

38. B

39. C

40. E

Test 9

Section 1

1.

A radio program

2.

LS142JW

3.

hennings.co.uk

4.

two/2

5.

Joint membership

6.

forty-nine/49

7.

The union bank

8.

15th october

9.

JYZ37

10. Video

Section 2

11. Lake

12. Picnic

13. Flowers

14. twenty/20

15. Motor

16. Art gallery

17. Concert hall

18. 2:30

19. C

20. B

Section 3

21. Classical history

22. compulsory

23. Object matters

24. Classification

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25. coursework

26. Towns and cities

27. The origins

28. Oral

29. seminars

30. Location

Section 4

31. A

32. B

33. B

34. B

35. C

36. A

37. B

38. A

39. B

40. C

Test 10

Section 1

1.

3.5 kilograms

2.

0.5

3.

37.5 cm

4.

2.5 hours

5.

wireless

6.

headphone(s)

7.

300

8.

Bristow

9.

09875423387

10. 22nd October

Section 2

11. B

12. D

13. Beach shop

14. Seating

15. 9:30 am

16. A

17. B

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18. A

19. A

20. C

Section 3

21. 20 minutes

22. Reading

23. B

24. A

25. C

26. A

27. A

28. B

29. A

30. A

Section 4

31. mood

32. Time-consuming

33. Simpler

34. media

35. card(s)

36. tourists

37. directions

38. Mixed

39. 3

40. 71

Test 11

Section 1

1. warehouse

2. Hitcher

3. supermarket

4. bakery

5. ARW204

6. adverts / advertisements

7. newspaper

8. agency

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9. tutors

10. feedback

Section 2

11. forts

12. Saxon times

13. woollen cloth

14. Vikings / Viking invasions

15. financial administration

16. three castles

17. survey

18. taxes

19. Roman walls

20. (wooden) drawbridge

Section 3

21. A

22. B

23. A

24. C

25. B

26. C

27&28. IN EITHER ORDER

27. B

28. E

29&30. IN EITHER ORDER

29. A

30. D

Section 4

31. Acronym

32. phenomenon

33. B/G (any order)

34. B/G (any order)

35. chip

36. hole

37. Wavelength

38. three primary colours

39. watermarks

40. organic compounds

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Test 12

Section 1

1.club

2. male

3. drive

4. Tuesday

5. August

6. dinner

7. 25

8. 16

9. modern

10. hospital

Section 2

11. peach-blossom

12. square-shaped

13. bamboo-pattern cabinets

14. dessert course

15. (cast) iron columns

16. smoke jack

17. (lotus-shaped) chandeliers

18. servant’s room

19. carpet

20. fine silk

Section 3

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. B

25. B

26. C

27. F

28. E

29. D

30. G

Section 4

31.

acute pain / localised pain

32.

CNS / central nervous system

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33.

spinal cord

34.

neurons / nerve impulses

35.

pain signal

36.

B

37.

individual’s sensitivity

38.

anti-inflammatory drugs

39.

natural painkiller

40. 30%

Test 13

Section 1

1.

Jamieson

2.

11th July

3.

waiter(s)

4.

sing

5.

children

6.

drive

7.

transport

8.

meal

9.

Thursday

10. Photo

Section 2

11. GM / genetically modified

12. (free-range) eggs

13. £1.59

14. one third / 1/3 / a third

15. jasmine & lavender

16. C/F (any order)

17. 17. C/F (any order)

18. 18. B/E (any order)

19. B/E (any order)

20. bottle of wine

Section 3

21. A

22.C

23. A

24. C

25. B

26. B

27. sharing

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28. education

29. settle down

30. gifts

Section 4

31.

relative velocities

32.

direct proportion

33.

action-reaction

34.

zero / 0

35.

objects move/object moves

36.

magnitude

37.

free fall

38.

force of repulsion/ repulsion force

39.

integrity

40.

Parallel

Test 14

Section 1

1.Children

2. 4

3. radio

4. Evening

5. 5 candles

6. Tuesday

7. donation

8. piano

9. discount

10. singer

Section 2

11. seven white cliffs

12. (crystal-clear) lake

13. weather

14. unexplored/untouched beach

15. sunbathing

16. water sports

17. canoes

18. life-saving jackets

19. paragliding

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20. fire

Section 3

21.B

22. A

23. A

24. C

25. B

26. B

27. A

28. C

29. E

30. F

Section 4

31. non-renewable

32. industrial boilers

33. architectural strategies

34. release

35. offshore regions

36. kinetic energy

37. volcanic locations

38. Iceland

39. gasoline additive

40. 2.7%

Test 15

Section 1

1.

077876345

2.

27(th) February/Feb.

3.

Akendale

4.

3,450

5.

books

6.

paintings

7.

mirror

8.

desk

9.

leg

10. plates

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Section 2

11. photo

12. clock in

13. cash up

14. stocktake

15. log out

16. third floor

17. swipe

18. lockers

19. black trousers

20. nail polish

Section 3

21. B

22. B

23. A

24. C

25. C

26. C

27. G

28. B

29. E

30. F

Section 4

31. B

32. wetlands

33. coal mines / digging the earth

34. breeding areas

35. north

36. covered by ice

37. sense of smell

38. oxygen depletion

39. Eucalyptus leaves

40. high sand temperatures

Test 16

Section 1

1. arthritis

2. knee

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3. 10 thousand

4. mortgage

5. competition

6. cousin

7. conceited

8. contract

9. Steel workers

10. 25th wedding

Section 2

11. C

12. D

13. E

14. A

15. E

16. B

17. C

18. A

19. A

20. A

Section 3

21. B

22. A

23. C

24. B

25. D

26. full-time

27. term

28. intensive

29. diploma

30. topic

Section 4

31. politics

32. learn

33. Children’s education

34. Car

35. Nursing

36. crisis

37. pensions

38. confidence

39. management

40. well-informed

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Test 17

Section 1

1. 3

2. brakes

3. overseas

4. 1500

5. 6:30

6. 88 Princess

7. B

8. C

9. C

10. A

Section 2

11. Temperate rainforest

12. Shallower water

13. Hot spring

14. curious

15. Fierce

16. solitary

17. Engine

18. rope(s)

19. Orange

20. Pills

Section 3

21. 200

22. 4 week

23. 8

24. 10 minute

25. skil(s)

26. Travel

27. A

28. C

29. B

30. C

Section 4

31. A

32. C

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33. B

34. Layout

35. Letters

36. Work

37. Accuracy

38. Speed

39. Mile

40. Dominant

Test 18

Section 1

1. Alex

2. 3

3. 8 November

4. 5

5. 108 park

6. grandmother

7. Sleeping

8. dress

9. tuesday

10. 4pm

Section 2

11. hobby

12. car

13. kitchen

14. Presents

15. elderly

16. projects

17. internet

18. Library

19. active/busy

20. Twelve

Section 3

21. B

22. C

23. B

24. A

25. A

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. B

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30. C

Section 4

31. 5000 BC

32. Worms

33. Historical evidence

34. Ancient Egypt

35. Olive oil

36. Onions

37. Historian

38. Extract

39. Middle ages

40. Modern

Test 19

Section 1

1. Sharpe

2. Beaconsfield

3. 0374 55 793

4. MH 66 G4

5. Credit card

6. Gold star

7. Mid-winter

8. 16 January

9. Taxi

10. Bicycle

Section 2

11. Front

12. Staircase

13. Security

14. Wall

15. 10

16. C

17. A

18. B

19. D

20. E

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Section 3

21. Plan

22. Responsibilities

23. Service

24. Reference

25. Methodology

26. Websites

27. H

28. B

29. G

30. E

Section 4

31. Inhabitants

32. Asia

33. Civilisation

34. Settlers

35. Whalers

36. Tents

37. Boats

38. Dogsled

39. Bowhead

40. Population

Test 20

Section 1

1. 14 Hill

2. 22 376 76

3. 1 year

4. Intermediate

5. North west

6. Vegetarian

7. Facilities

8. Garden

9. 100

10. 23rd March

Section 2

11. Clubhouse

12. Picnic

13. Prizes

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14. Junior

15. 8:30 AM

16. 4

17. Sunday

18. D

19. F

20. B

Section 3

21. B

22. C

23. F

24. A

25. C

26. B

27. A

28. C

29. A

30. A

Section 4

31. Message

32. Media

33. Cost -effective

34. Habits

35. Recognise

36. Image

37. Servies

38. Locations

39. Perfume

40. Supportive

Test 21

Section 1

1. 190

2. 6 months

3. Easymove

4. TV

5. microwave/oven

6. Fridge

7. gas

telegram: @instalingo

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8. Jacobs

9. 4 lion

10. 099 547 218 23

Section 2

11. A

12. B

13. C

14. Differentiate

15. Simplified pricing

16. Creative marketing

17. Cooking demonstrations

18. Tree lightings

19. B

20. E

Section 3

21. exhibition

22. Commercial

23. Geometric

24. Slender

25. Decoration

26. streamlined

27. Horizontal

28. A

29. C

30. A

Section 4

31. Empire

32. Modern

33. Maize

34. Bean

35. Social

36. Dyes

37. Crafts

38. Leadership

39. Temples

40. Precious

Test 22

Section 1

1. B

2. C

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3. B

4. A

5. 15 sportsman

6. 0414 658 339

7. igo.com

8. B

9. C

10. D

Section 2

11. Breakfast

12. paintings

13. Castle

14. Famous people

15. Antique shows

16. Old postcards

17. E

18. F

19. A

20. D

Section 3

21. B

22. E

23. Smith Brothers

24. Choosing University courses

25. Printers Limited

26. Surviving university

27. 2004

28. B

29. E

30. F

Section 4

31. Crisis

32. Knowledge

33. Market

34. Obvious

35. director

36. regional

37. group

38. C

39. B

40. C

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Test 23

Section 1

1. 40

2. 4:05 AM

3. Commitments

4. 07-Aug

5. unpack

6. Post

7. carry-on

8. Suitcase

9. L4GBWF

10. Aisle

Section 2

11. Serious assaults

12. Isolated roads

13. Emergency vehicle

14. Occupied house

15. Corner

16. E

17. B

18. A

19. C

20. D

Section 3

21. monarchy

22. general

23. Executive

24. Makes

25. Interprets

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. B

30. A

Section 4

31. C

32. D

33. B

34. F

35. A

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36. E

37. Individual

38. Core group

39. Options

40. Final decision

Test 24

Section 1

1. Writing workshop

2. ten

3. prescribed/set

4. History

5. 3:30 PM

6. Cake decorating

7. Booking

8. Social networking

9. Work life balance

10. Central library

Section 2

11. B

12. C

13. A

14. A

15. C

16. E

17. ring

18. Plugs

19. Outside

20. heaters

Section 3

21. survival

22. Threatened

23. Seasonal fluctuations

24. Shallow

25. Refuge areas

26. Purity

27. F

28. E

29. C

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30. D

Section 4

31. sun/wind

32. wind/sun

33. puffy

34. horizontal

35. fog

36. hair-like

37. Produce

38. Droplets

39. Raindrops

40. expansion

Test 25

Section 1

1. Durham

2. 7848 3762

3. Trader

4. 17 Brown

5. 4065

6. 6 months

7. Washing machine

8. 750

9. Water

10. Noisy

Section 2

11. air-conditioned

12. Hope

13. Rainforest

14. Photo opportunity

15. Reception desk

16. Green mountain

17. Senior citizen

18. 8:30 AM

19. Coach travel

20. Entrance fees

Section 3

21. B

22. A

23. A

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24. C

25. B

26. D

27. A

28. E

29. C

30. G

Section 4

31. Reactions

32. Environmental

33. Personal

34. Surroundings

35. places/ areas

36. Presence

37. Uneasy

38. Parts

39. Aversion

40. Dark

Test 26

Section 1

1. Driver’s licence

2. AY 196310

3. May 19

4. 29 Sunset

5. Motorcar

6. Dangerous driving

7. Blue

8. First vehicle

9. Car hire

10. 0.75%

Section 2

11. A

12. C

13. A

14. B

15. B

16. B

17. A

18. C

19. G

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20. E

Section 3

21. support

22. Clay

23. cork

24. Solution

25. mesh/lid

26. B

27. E

28. A

29. C

30. E

Section 4

31. Rhyme

32. Thirty

33. French

34. Promotion

35. Nature

36. Ex-convicts

37. Soldiers

38. Surgeons

39. Officers

40. Scandals

If you score…

0 - 12

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable an acceptable score under I score under

examination conditions and we recommend that you spend a lot of time improving I more practice or

lessons your English before you take IELTS

13 - 26 you may get an acceptable score under examination conditions but we recommended that

you think

about having more practice or lessons before you take IELTS

27 - 40

you are likely to get an acceptable score under examination conditions but remember that different

institutions will find different scores acceptable.

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